C-TBIT44-71 www.cert24.com latest microsoft training materials

C-TBIT44-71 C-TBIT44-71 C-TBIT44-71 www.cert24.com

Exam Number/Code : C-TBIT44-71

Exam Name:Process Integration with SAP NetWeaver (PI 7.1)

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1
The PI Mail adapter is used to send and receive emails. Which protocols are supported? Note:
There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. SMTP
B. HTTP
C. IMAP4
D. POP3

Answer: A,C,D

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QUESTION NO: 2
You are implementing an IDoc-based scenario using SAP Netweaver PI and more specifically the sender IDoc adapter. Which of these steps are mandatory for the sender IDoc adapter to function properly?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. IDoc metadata must be imported into the Enterprise Services Repository.
B. The Logical System name (ALE name) for the Business System must be defined in the SLD.
C. A sender communication channel must be defined in the Integration Builder.
D. An RFC destination must be defined on the sender system, pointing to the Integration Server client.

Answer: A,B,D

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C-TERP10-60 C-TERP10-60 C-TERP10-60 www.cert24.com

C-TERP10-60 C-TERP10-60 C-TERP10-60 www.cert24.com

Exam Number/Code : C-TERP10-60

Exam Name:SAP Certified Business Associate with SAP ERP 6.0

Version : Demo

1.Enterprise Services Architecture (ESA) enables business innovation by (chooseall that apply):
A. Leveraging existing IT assets
B. Reducing total cost of ownership
C. Increasing time to implementation
D. Maximizing agility

Answer: A,B,D

C-TERP10-60 C-TERP10-60 C-TERP10-60 www.cert24.com

2.MySAP Business Suite includes.?(choose all that apply):
A. MySAP ERP
B. MySCM
C. MyCRM
D. Netweaver
E. MySAP SRM

Answer: A,B,C,D,E

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3.Which of the following describe data and transactions in the SAP system?
(Choose all that apply)
A. A document is created for each transaction carried out in the system
B. Transaction codes determine the relevant master data
C. Master data ensure the redundancy of data in the system
D. Applicable organizational elements must be assigned for each transaction

Answer: A,D

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braindump,original questions CTFL-001 CTFL-001 CTFL-001 www.cert24.com

CTFL-001 CTFL-001 CTFL-001 www.cert24.com

Exam Number/Code : CTFL-001

Exam Name:ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1

Which of the following would you expect to see in the master test plan? 1 credit
A. A description of how the test cases are cross-referenced to requirements in the test
management tool.
B. A detailed identification of the resources that will carry out structural testing in the first iteration.
C. The test approach that will be applied at system integration testing.
D. A list of the names of the testers who will carry out the performance testing for the final iteration.

Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following would be the TWO most appropriate examples of entry criteria documented in the system integration test plan? 2 credits
A. The percentage of decision coverage achieved during unit testing.
B. The availability of the latest version of the capture-replay tool (for testing the interface with the newly developed test management tool).
C. The sign-off of a performance test software release note (test item transmittal report) by both development and testing showing that system performance meets the specified acceptance criteria.
D. The percentage of acceptance test procedures scheduled for execution.
E. The percentage of requirements coverage achieved during system integration test.

Answer: A,B

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CTFL-UK CTFL-UK CTFL-UK www.cert24.com

CTFL-UK CTFL-UK CTFL-UK www.cert24.com

Exam Number/Code : CTFL-UK

Exam Name:ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1
The introduction of reviews and inspections has often failed as a process improvement action.
Identify the THREE most important measures that should be taken to reduce the risk that this test process improvement will fail. 2 Credits (for 2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)

A. Process ownership and experienced moderators who drive the inspection process.
B. Management support
C. Training of those involved
D. The availability of stands and processes
E. Usage of a more traditional software development lifecycle
F. Alignment with software process improvement
G. Using a reference model, e.g. TMMi

Answer: A,B,C

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QUESTION NO: 2
IEEE 1028 also defines “management review” as a type of review. What is the main purpose of a management review? 1 credit

A. Align technical concepts during the design phase
B. Establish a common understanding of requirements
C. Provide independent evaluation of compliance to processes, regulations, standards etc.
D. To monitor progress, assess the status of a project, and make decisions about future actions

Answer: D

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IT Certifications Test 100% Pass Guaranteed CX-310-052 www.cert24.com

CX-310-052 CX-310-052 CX-310-052 www.cert24.com

Exam Number/Code : CX-310-052

Exam Name:Java Enterprise Edition 5 Enterprise Architect Certified Master Exam (Step 1 of 3)

Version : Demo

1.What are the three primary roles in a web service interaction? (Choose three.)
A.Broker
B.Facade
C.Provider
D.Decorator
E.Requestor
F.Interceptor
Answer:A C E

CX-310-052 CX-310-052 CX-310-052 www.cert24.com

2.A stock trading company is writing a new application for stock market forecasting. A significant portion of the work required by the business logic involves navigating through the persistent object model. As lead architect on this project, you have chosen JPA over EJB2 entity beans to implement these persistent objects. You have done this to maximize performance when
navigating through the model. Why does JPA offer better performance for this task?
A.JPA guarantees referential integrity at the object level.
B.JPA allows the application to specify lazy or eager retrievals.
C.JPA simplifies the source code that implements the object model.
D.The guaranteed referential integrity in EJB2 entity beans is expensive.
Answer:B

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E22-275 E22-275 E22-275 www.cert24.com

E22-275 E22-275 E22-275 www.cert24.com

Exam Number/Code : E22-275

Exam Name:recoverpoint backup and recovery specialist exam

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1
A customer is thinking about purchasing RecoverPoint. During their research, they learn that RecoverPoint uses a data reduction technique called a “signature.”
How does the signature feature work?

A. It compresses all the production data into snapshots using high-yield compression algorithms.
B. If there are multiple writes to the same location, it sends only the last write within the snapshot granularity window.
C. It provides recommendations for consistency group distribution between the RPAs and initiates Semi-Automated Load Balancing.
D. It reads multiple replication blocks at a time and replicates only the changed data over the network.

Answer: D

E22-275 E22-275 E22-275 www.cert24.com

QUESTION NO: 2
A customer was testing various operations on the target side of a consistency group (CG) in their CDP environment. What operation can they perform without triggering a volume or full sweep on the CG?

A. Accessing the replica in virtual mode
B. Removing and adding back a replica to the CG
C. Accessing the replica in direct access mode
D. Removing a journal volume on the CG in the target site

Answer: A

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latest microsoft Test data EADA10 EADA10 EADA10 www.cert24.com

EADA10 EADA10 EADA10 www.cert24.com

Exam Number/Code : EADA10

Exam Name: ArcGIS Desktop Associate

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1
A feature class in Coordinate System A is added to a data frame in ArcMap that is using
Coordinate System B. The features are displayed accurately on the map.
How is ArcMap able to display the features accurately?

A. ArcMap temporarily reassigns the coordinate system of the feature class to Coordinate System B
B. ArcMap permanently reassigns the coordinate system of the feature class to Coordinate System B
C. ArcMap protects the features into Coordinate System B on-the-fly
D. ArcMap redirects the user to project the data into Coordinate System B before it can be added to the map

Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 2
An ArcGIS user is displaying a parcel feature class under a building feature class. The user wants to ensure that the exact outline of all features is visible.
What must the ArcGIS user do to allow both feature classes to be viewed at the same time?

A. spatially join features
B. set transparency on buildings
C. join buildings to parcels
D. relate buildings to parcels
E. change display order of features

Answer: B

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I10-001 I10-001 I10-001 www.cert24.com

I10-001 I10-001 I10-001 www.cert24.com

Exam Number/Code : I10-001

Exam Name: XML Master Basic V2

Version : Demo

QUESTION: 1
Press the Exhibit button to view “XML Schema Document”. Select which of the following
correctly describes a valid XML document with respect to “XML Schema Document”.

A.
Taro Yamada
[email protected]

B.

C.
Taro Yamada
[email protected]

D.

Answer: A, B

I10-001 I10-001 I10-001 www.cert24.com

QUESTION: 2
Press the Exhibit button to view “XML Document”. Select which of the following correctly
describes the results of applying “XSLT Stylesheet” to “XML Document”. Assume that the
input XML document and transformation results ignore meaningless whitespace.

A. A file that does not contain any content will be output, because the XML document LIST
element does not contain a name attribute.
B. The following XML document will be output.

PenPaper C. The following XML document will be output.

Pen
Paper
D. The following XML document will be output.

Pen
Paper
PenPaper
Answer: B

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latest IT Review materials EX0-101 EX0-101 EX0-101 www.cert24.com

EX0-101 EX0-101 EX0-101 www.cert24.com

Exam Number/Code : EX0-101

Exam Name :ITIL Foundation v.3

Version : Demo

1. Which of the following do Service Metrics measure?
A. Processes and functions
B. Maturity and cost
C. The end to end service
D. Infrastructure availability

Answer: C

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2. Which of the following BEST describes a Service Request?
A. A request from a User for information, advice or for a Standard Change
B. Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for
C. Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a Self-Help web-based interface
D. Any Request for Change (RFC) that is low risk and can be approved by the Change Manager without a Change Advisory Board (CAB) meeting

Answer: A

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3. Which of the following does the Availability Management process include?
1 Ensuring services are able to meet availability targets
2 Monitoring and reporting actual availability
3 Improvement activities, to ensure that services continue to meet or exceed their availability goals
A. 2 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only

Answer: B

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EX0-104 EX0-104 EX0-104 www.cert24.com

EX0-104 EX0-104 EX0-104 www.cert24.com

Exam Number/Code : EX0-104

Exam Name :TMap Next Foundation

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1
See the definition below:
Tests in which the supplying party demonstrates that the product particularly meets the functional and non-functional specifications and the technical design, among other things.
Of which test level is this the definition?
A. acceptance test
B. development test
C. system test

Answer: C

EX0-104 EX0-104 EX0-104 www.cert24.com

QUESTION NO: 2
In which Map phase activity does the pre-test take place?
A. Defining central starting points
B. Intake of the test object
C. Specifying the test object intake
D. Executing (re)tests

Answer: B

EX0-104 EX0-104 EX0-104 www.cert24.com

QUESTION NO: 3
Which defect has an internal cause that can be solved within the test team?
A. a defect in the test basis
B. a defect in the test specification
C. a defect in the test object

Answer: B

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