Practicetest COG-310 IBM cert24
Practicetest COG-310 IBM cert24

IT Exam,IT Certification,braindump,original questions, question pool,document, braindump, test questions, test question, dumps, test answers, cert24.com, preparation, pdf, certification questions, answers Certification, certification test, practice test, exam dumps, certification training, answers real questions

COG-310 IBM Cognos TM1 Developer our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
Why is the same error generated from TI processes repeated multiple times?

A. The TI process was executed more than one time.
B. The chore was executed more than one time.
C. The TM1 server ran the process for each cell in the cube.
D. The script in the process ran for each row in the source.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2
Why would an application developer set a dimension action to ‘as is’ in a Turbo Integrator
process?

A. The process creates a dimension.
B. The process loads data to a cube.
C. The process adds data to a dimension.
D. The process creates an attribute.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
An application developer needs to quickly populate a large number of cells in a cube with the same data. What is the fastest way to accomplish this?

A. Create a TI process.
B. Spread data into the cube.
C. Type the data into the individual cells.
D. Copy the data from the source and paste into the cube.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4
What can an application developer provide to automate the save process for all TM1 objects?

A. A script to store ODBC data in a cube.
B. A chore with scripts to write data to all cubes.
C. A rule to save data in all cubes.
D. A chore with scripts to write data to all dimensions.

Answer: B

Practicetest COG-310 IBM cert24

Practicetest COG-300 IBM cert24
Practicetest COG-300 IBM cert24

IT Exam,IT Certification,braindump,original questions, question pool,document, braindump, test questions, test question, dumps, test answers, cert24.com, preparation, pdf, certification questions, answers Certification, certification test, practice test, exam dumps, certification training, answers real questions

COG-300 IBM Cognos TM1 Analyst our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
The TM1 administrator needs to maintain the model located on the server which does not have Microsoft Excel. Which TM1 component must be used?

A. TM1 Web
B. Turbo Integrator
C. TM1 Perspectives
D. TM1 Architect

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2
Which TM1 component allows for the export of an analysis from the Cube Viewer to Microsoft Excel for formatting?

A. TM1 Web
B. TM1 Perspectives
C. TM1 Server
D. TM1 Architect

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
When browsing data in a cube, the values of interest would be found in which dimension?

A. Measures dimension
B. Control dimension
C. Time dimension
D. Foundation dimension

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4
In the list of accounts, cash accounts are preceded with 100 in the five digit account code. Which of the following can be used as a wildcard character to display only the accounts beginning with 100?

A. Asterisk (*)
B. Pipe symbol (|)
C. Question mark (?)
D. Ampersand ()

Answer: A

Practicetest COG-300 IBM cert24

Practicetest COG-205 IBM cert24
Practicetest COG-205 IBM cert24

IT Exam,IT Certification,braindump,original questions, question pool,document, braindump, test questions, test question, dumps, test answers, cert24.com, preparation, pdf, certification questions, answers Certification, certification test, practice test, exam dumps, certification training, answers real questions

COG-205 IBM Cognos 8 Controller Technical Specialist our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
When two different keys encrypt a plaintext message into the same
ciphertext, this situation is known as:
A. Cryptanalysis.
B. Public key cryptography.
C. Hashing.
D. Key clustering.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2
What do the message digest algorithms MD2, MD4 and MD5 have in
common?
A. They are all used in the Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA).
B. They all take a message of arbitrary length and produce a message
digest of 128-bits.
C. They all take a message of arbitrary length and produce a message
digest of 160-bits.
D. They are all optimized for 32-bit machines.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following items BEST describes the standards addressed
by Title II, Administrative Simplification, of the Health Insurance
Portability and Accountability Act (US Kennedy-Kassebaum Health
Insurance and Portability Accountability Act -HIPAA-Public Law 104-19)?
A. Transaction Standards, to include Code Sets; Security and Electronic
Signatures and Privacy
B. Security and Electronic Signatures and Privacy
C. Transaction Standards, to include Code Sets; Unique Health
Identifiers; Security and Electronic Signatures and Privacy
D. Unique Health Identifiers; Security and Electronic Signatures and Privacy
Answer: C

Practicetest COG-205 IBM cert24

Practicetest CISSP ISC cert24
Practicetest CISSP ISC cert24

IT Exam,IT Certification,braindump,original questions, question pool,document, braindump, test questions, test question, dumps, test answers, cert24.com, preparation, pdf, certification questions, answers Certification, certification test, practice test, exam dumps, certification training, answers real questions

CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
When two different keys encrypt a plaintext message into the same
ciphertext, this situation is known as:
A. Cryptanalysis.
B. Public key cryptography.
C. Hashing.
D. Key clustering.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2
What do the message digest algorithms MD2, MD4 and MD5 have in
common?
A. They are all used in the Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA).
B. They all take a message of arbitrary length and produce a message
digest of 128-bits.
C. They all take a message of arbitrary length and produce a message
digest of 160-bits.
D. They are all optimized for 32-bit machines.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following items BEST describes the standards addressed
by Title II, Administrative Simplification, of the Health Insurance
Portability and Accountability Act (US Kennedy-Kassebaum Health
Insurance and Portability Accountability Act -HIPAA-Public Law 104-19)?
A. Transaction Standards, to include Code Sets; Security and Electronic
Signatures and Privacy
B. Security and Electronic Signatures and Privacy
C. Transaction Standards, to include Code Sets; Unique Health
Identifiers; Security and Electronic Signatures and Privacy
D. Unique Health Identifiers; Security and Electronic Signatures and Privacy
Answer: C

Practicetest CISSP ISC cert24

Practicetest CISM Isaca cert24
Practicetest CISM Isaca cert24

IT Exam,IT Certification,braindump,original questions, question pool,document, braindump, test questions, test question, dumps, test answers, cert24.com, preparation, pdf, certification questions, answers Certification, certification test, practice test, exam dumps, certification training, answers real questions

CISM Certified Information Security Manager our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION: 1
A common concern with poorly written web applications is that they can allow an attacker
to:

A. gain control through a buffer overflow.
B. conduct a distributed denial of service (DoS) attack.
C. abuse a race condition.
D. inject structured query language (SQL) statements.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Structured query language (SQL) injection is one of the most common and dangerous web application vulnerabilities. Buffer overflows and race conditions are very difficult to find and exploit on web applications. Distributed denial of service (DoS) attacks have nothing to do with the quality of a web application.

QUESTION: 2
Which of the following would be of GREATEST importance to the security manager in
determining whether to accept residual risk?

A. Historical cost of the asset
B. Acceptable level of potential business impacts
C. Cost versus benefit of additional mitigating controls
D. Annualized loss expectancy (ALE)

Answer: C

Explanation:
The security manager would be most concerned with whether residual risk would be reduced by a greater amount than the cost of adding additional controls. The other choices, although relevant, would not be as important.

QUESTION: 3
A project manager is developing a developer portal and requests that the security manager assign a public IP address so that it can be accessed by in-house staff and by external consultants outside the organization’s local are network (LAN). What should the security manager do FIRST?

A. Understand the business requirements of the developer portal
B. Perform a vulnerability assessment of the developer portal
C. Install an intrusion detection system (IDS)
D. Obtain a signed nondisclosure agreement (NDA) from the external consultants before
allowing external access to the server

Answer: A

Explanation:
The information security manager cannot make an informed decision about the request
without first understanding the business requirements of the developer portal. Performing a vulnerability assessment of developer portal and installing an intrusion detection system
(IDS) are best practices but are subsequent to understanding the requirements. Obtaining a signed nondisclosure agreement will not take care of the risks inherent in the organization’s application.

QUESTION: 4
A mission-critical system has been identified as having an administrative system account
with attributes that prevent locking and change of privileges and name. Which would be the BEST approach to prevent successful brute forcing of the account?
A. Prevent the system from being accessed remotely
B. Create a strong random password
C. Ask for a vendor patch
D. Track usage of the account by audit trails

Answer: B

Explanation:
Creating a strong random password reduces the risk of a successful brute force attack by
exponentially increasing the time required. Preventing the system from being accessed
remotely is not always an option in mission-critical systems and still leaves local access
risks. Vendor patches are not always available. Tracking usage is a detective control and will not prevent an attack.

Practicetest CISM Isaca cert24

Practicetest CISA Isaca cert24

Practicetest CISA Isaca cert24

IT Exam,IT Certification,braindump,original questions, question pool,document, braindump, test questions, test question, dumps, test answers, cert24.com, preparation, pdf, certification questions, answers Certification, certification test, practice test, exam dumps, certification training, answers real questions

CISA Isaca CISA our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following is a characteristic of timebox management?

A. Not suitable for prototyping or rapid application development (RAD)
B. Eliminates the need for a quality process
C. Prevents cost overruns and delivery delays
D. Separates system and user acceptance testing

Answer: C

Explanation:
Timebox management, by its nature, sets specific time and cost boundaries. It is very suitable for prototyping and RAD, and integrates system and user acceptance testing, but does not eliminate the need for a quality process.

QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following should an IS auditor review to gain an understanding of the effectiveness of controls over the management of multiple projects?

A. Project database
B. Policy documents
C. Project portfolio database
D. Program organization

Answer: C

Explanation:
A project portfolio database is the basis for project portfolio management. It includes project data, such as owner, schedules, objectives, project type, status and cost. Project portfolio management requires specific project portfolio reports. A project database may contain the above for one specific project and updates to various parameters pertaining to the current status of that single project. Policy documents on project management set direction for the design, development, implementation and monitoring of the project. Program organization is the team required (steering committee, quality assurance, systems personnel, analyst, programmer, hardware support, etc.) to meet the delivery objective of the project.

QUESTION NO: 3
To minimize the cost of a software project, quality management techniques should be applied:

A. as close to their writing (i.e., point of origination) as possible.
B. primarily at project start-up to ensure that the project is established in accordance with
organizational governance standards.
C. continuously throughout the project with an emphasis on finding and fixing defects primarily during testing to maximize the defect detection rate.
D. mainly at project close-down to capture lessons learned that can be applied to future projects.

Answer: C

Practicetest CISA Isaca cert24

Practicetest C-HANAIMP-1 SAP cert24
Practicetest C-HANAIMP-1 SAP cert24

IT Exam,IT Certification,braindump,original questions, question pool,document, braindump, test questions, test question, dumps, test answers, cert24.com, preparation, pdf, certification questions, answers Certification, certification test, practice test, exam dumps, certification training, answers real questions

C-HANAIMP-1 SAP Certified Application Associate – SAP HANA 1.0 our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

Practicetest C-HANAIMP-1 SAP cert24

QUESTION NO: 1
You have imported models from the development system. What is the recommended way to activate dependent models in SAP HANA?

A. Use the Activate with History function.
B. Use the Where-Used List function.
C. Use the Cascade Activate function.
D. Activate each view manually.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2
Which SAP BusinessObjects reporting tool should you use to answer ad-hoc questions and interact with shared information?

A. Crystal Reports
B. Dashboards
C. Explorer
D. WebIntelligence

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
How can you assess the quality of the loaded data in SAP HANA? (Choose two)

A. Configure the SAP Landscape Transformation tool to implement the data quality process.
B. Compare data from reports in SAP BusinessObjects against the SAP HANA
_SYS_STATISTICS table.
C. Perform master data quality checks in SAP ERP prior to replication in SAP HANA.
D. Compare reports in SAP BusinessObjects against source data for specific selections.

Answer: C,D

Practicetest C-HANAIMP-1 SAP cert24

Practicetest CBAP IIBA cert24
Practicetest CBAP IIBA cert24

IT Exam,IT Certification,braindump,original questions, question pool,document, braindump, test questions, test question, dumps, test answers, cert24.com, preparation, pdf, certification questions, answers Certification, certification test, practice test, exam dumps, certification training, answers real questions

CBAP Certified Business Analysis Professional™ (CBAP ® ) our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

Practicetest CBAP IIBA cert24

QUESTION NO: 1
Marcy is the business analyst for her organization. She is completing the business analysis task of defining the business needs. She has the business goals and objectives and the requirements stated documentation. What must she confirm about the requirements stated documentation before defining the business need based on her analysis?

A. The requirements must reflect actual business requirements, not a description of the solutions.
B. The requirements must contain no or little risks.
C. The requirements must reflect proposed solutions as part of alternative identification.
D. The requirements must be compatible with the refinement of the business goals and objectives.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
Bob and Susan are business analysts for their organization. They are examining two materials that could be used in an upcoming project. They are testing the materials and measuring the results of each test to compare the materials to each other. This process will help Bob and Susan determine which material is best for their upcoming project. What type of process are Bob and Susan completing with these materials?

A. Feasibility study
B. Stress test
C. Alternative identification
D. Benchmarking

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
You are the business analyst for your organization. You are working with several IT professionals to determine all of the connected systems in your organization. You are creating a mapping of the servers, workstations, printers, and other connected devices and their purposes for an analysis of how information is input, processed, stored, and output from each system. What business analysis process are you completing?

A. Networking topology mapping
B. Data dictionary and glossary creation
C. Data flow diagram
D. Prototype

Answer: C

Practicetest CBAP IIBA cert24

Practicetest C_TSCM62_64 SAP cert24
Practicetest C_TSCM62_64 SAP cert24

IT Exam,IT Certification,braindump,original questions, question pool,document, braindump, test questions, test question, dumps, test answers, cert24.com, preparation, pdf, certification questions, answers Certification, certification test, practice test, exam dumps, certification training, answers real questions

C_TSCM62_64 SAP Certified Application Associate – Order Fulfillment with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4 our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

Practicetest C_TSCM62_64 SAP cert24

QUESTION NO: 1
In which of the following circumstances can functions be controlled by the item category? Note:
There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. If an item is relevant for billing.
B. If the availability check is performed.
C. If schedule line items are allowed.
D. If an item is relevant for rejection and a reason for rejection is assigned to it.
E. If an item is relevant for pricing.

Answer: A,C,E

QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following document flows describes a possible standard sales process?

A. Inquiry – Delivery – Transfer order – Post goods issue – Invoice – Accounting document
B. Standard order with reference to an inquiry – Delivery – Transfer order – Post goods issue – Invoice – Accounting document
C. Quotation – Delivery – Transfer order – Post goods issue – Invoice – Accounting document
D. Release order with reference to a previous delivery – Delivery – Transfer order – Post goods issue – Invoice – Accounting document

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
In which of the following ways can you use the document flow?

A. You can navigate directly to individual documents in change mode.
B. You can change any existing target documents without affecting the status in the source document.
C. You can review how documents and items of a sales process are linked.
D. You can reset the status of any document in order to redo the entire process.

Answer: C

Practicetest C_TSCM62_64 SAP cert24

Practicetest C_TSCM52_64 SAP cert24
Practicetest C_TSCM52_64 SAP cert24

IT Exam,IT Certification,braindump,original questions, question pool,document, braindump, test questions, test question, dumps, test answers, cert24.com, preparation, pdf, certification questions, answers Certification, certification test, practice test, exam dumps, certification training, answers real questions

C_TSCM52_64 SAP Certified Application Associate – Procurement with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4 our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

Practicetest C_TSCM52_64 SAP cert24

QUESTION NO: 1
You create a purchase order for a foreign vendor. In what language are messages for this
purchase order printed?

A. In the language in which you are logged on to the system
B. In the language defined in the vendor master record
C. In the language of the purchase order header
D. In the language defined in the output determination Customizing settings

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2
Which procurement element can be created in Purchasing with automatic purchase order
generation?

A. Delivery schedules
B. Contracts
C. Invoicing plans
D. Contract release orders

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
What characterizes an item category in purchasing? (Choose two.)

A. New item categories can be created in Customizing.
B. The item category contains a default value for the invoice receipt indicator in a purchase order item.
C. Any item category can be used in combination with any account assignment category in a purchase order.
D. The name of an item category can be changed in Customizing.

Answer: B,D

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