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HP2-T26 Servicing HP BladeSystem Solutions We believe in helping our customers achieve their goals. For this reason, we take great care while preparing our Questions and Answers , Core Administration. Our practice tests Administration are prepared with the help of highly professional people from the industry, so we benefit from their vast experience and knowledge.

QUESTION NO: 1
Technician is installing HP ProLiant servers at different customer sites. Since the technician wants to have the ProLiant equipped with the latest firmware level available, what is the best solution?

A. Before going onsite, the technician should download the latest SmartStart Firmware CD and use this SmartStart Firmware CD for deploying the latest firmware.
B. The technician should download the latest SmartStart firmware CD and add the firmware releases published after the release of the latest SmartStart Firmware CD to the
\compaq\swpackages on the CD-ROM.
C. The technician should create a bootable USB stick containing the latest SmartStart Firmware CD and add the firmware releases published after the release of the latest SmartStart Firmware CD to the \compaq\swpackages on the USB stick.
D. Before going onsite, the technician should download the latest SmartStart Firmware CD. The technician should download the firmware releases published after the release of the latest SmartStart Firmware CD and save these images on floppies. The SmartStartFirmware CD and downloaded images on floppy are used for deploying the latest firmware.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2
Which interface can be used to check the firmware version of all components in a blade
enclosure?

A. HP System Update Manager
B. Virtual Connect Manager
C. Onboard Administrator
D. HP System Management Homepage

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
Which ProLiant Server Blade utilities are available to check the system information and BIOS version? (Select two.)

A. ROM-Based Setup Utility
B. Diagnostic Utility
C. Inspect Utility
D. Option ROM Configuration for Arrays Utility
E. Network Boot Utility

Answer: A,C
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HP2-Z09 TippingPoint Advanced Technical Security Products We believe in helping our customers achieve their goals. For this reason, we take great care while preparing our Questions and Answers , Core Administration. Our practice tests Administration are prepared with the help of highly professional people from the industry, so we benefit from their vast experience and knowledge.

QUESTION NO: 1
What happens when an IPS enters Performance Protection Mode (also known as Logging Mode)?
A. Traffic is permitted or blocked depending on segment configuration.
B. Blocks still occur, but other traffic is permitted without notifications.
C. Traffic continues to be inspected, but event notifications are suppressed.
D. Network congestion ceases.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2
The TippingPoint Threat Suppression Engine defines a flow based on which criteria? (Select three.)
A. source/destination IP address
B. source/destination MAC address
C. IP protocol
D. source/destination TCP/UDP port
E. incoming segment port
Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION NO: 3
Which inbuilt feature can prevent the IPS from degrading network performance due to a poorly performing filter where that filter sees a lot of suspicion but fails to match, and congestion is occurring?
A. Link-down synchronization
B. Layer-2 Fallback
C. Performance Protection
D. Adaptive Filter Configuration (AFC)
Answer: D

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HP2-Z18 Network Infrastructure AIS 2011 We believe in helping our customers achieve their goals. For this reason, we take great care while preparing our Questions and Answers , Core Administration. Our practice tests Administration are prepared with the help of highly professional people from the industry, so we benefit from their vast experience and knowledge.

QUESTION NO: 1
Port B1 on an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch is an untagged member of VLAN 155 and not a tagged member of any VLAN. Port C1 is a tagged member of VLAN 155 and an untagged member of VLAN 100. You issue the following command:
5406zl(config)# no vlan 155
Why do you receive the following prompt?
The following ports will be moved to the default VLAN:
Bl
Do you want to continue? [y/n] :
A. The CLI always issues this prompt when deleting a VLAN.
B. The CLIwill not allow you to orphan a port.
C. The CLI will not delete a VLAN with any port membership.
D. All ports must be moved to the default VLAN before you can delete the VLAN.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2
After issuing the following two CLI commands, how can you gain access to the CLI of the switch if the manager and operator passwords have been lost?
E5406 (config)# no front-panel-security password-clear
E5406(config)# no front-panel-security factory-reset
A. Power cycle the switch and access the ROM console to clear passwords at the manager prompt.
B. Press the Reset and Clear buttons on the switch’s front panel, release the Reset button and hold the Clear button until the all switch LEDs blink rapidly.
C. Contact support and obtain a one-time password to gain access to the switch.
D. Reset the passwords using the Secure Access Wizard i n ProCurve Manager Plus.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
You have configured a dynamic LACP four-port trunk connecting two HP E-Series switches How will the switches share the load over the trunk?
A. The switch that receives the first packet in each conversation will balance the load by ensuring reply packets use a different link.
B. Each switch will assign conversations to links independent of the other switch’s selection.
C. The switches will exchange LACP BPDUs to negotiate a load-sharing algorithm.
D. The switches wi II dynamically calculate the path of least congesti on for each conversation

Answer: C

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HP2-Z21 Planning and Designing HP Enterprise Networking Solutions We believe in helping our customers achieve their goals. For this reason, we take great care while preparing our Questions and Answers , Core Administration. Our practice tests Administration are prepared with the help of highly professional people from the industry, so we benefit from their vast experience and knowledge.

QUESTION NO: 1
The exhibit displays the type of information about an HP A5820-24XG-SFP+ switch that a sales professional might cite to a customer interested in the product’s performance.
Exhibit: Product specifications
HP A5820-24XG-SPF+ specifications
Maximum 10G: 24
Routing and switching capacity (Gbps): 488
Throughput (Mpps): 363
Typical latency (microseconds):
Layer 2 = Less than 3; normal Layer 3 = Less than 6; jumbo Layer 3 = 26
Which specification demonstrates that this switch provides a good QoS with minimal lag and jitter for all types of traffic?
A. total routing and switching capacity
B. throughput
C. typical latency
D. maximum 10G port density

Answer: C

Reference: http://www.wimax.com/wimax-tutorial/quality-of-service (first paragraph)

QUESTION NO: 2
Which feature is supported on the HP A8800 Router Series, but not on the HP A6600 Router Series?
A. Layer 3/4 traffic prioritization
B. Hierarchical QoS (H-QoS)
C. Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)
D. Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF)

Answer: B

Reference: http://h18000.www1.hp.com/products/quickspecs/13810_na/13810_na.PDF

QUESTION NO: 3
Which versatile switch series is designed to function at the aggregation layer of a three-tier enterprise campus LAN, the core of a small data center, and the access layer of an advanced enterprise campus LAN?
A. A12500
B. A9500
C. A7500
D. A5820

Answer: D

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HP2-Z22 Selling HP Network Solutions We believe in helping our customers achieve their goals. For this reason, we take great care while preparing our Questions and Answers , Core Administration. Our practice tests Administration are prepared with the help of highly professional people from the industry, so we benefit from their vast experience and knowledge.

QUESTION NO: 1
A company is concerned that the temporary workers at a branch office will introduce viruses and other malware into the internal network. The company also wants to provide network access for branch employees who telecommute. Which features make the HP Threat Management Services zl Module a possible security solution for this company’s branch office? (Select two.)

A. Endpoint Admission Defense (EAD)
B. Web filtering
C. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
D. Intrusion Protection System (IPS)
E. User Access Management (UAM)

Answer: C,D
Explanation: The HP Threat Management Services (TMS) zl Module is a multifunction security system for the HP E5400 zl and E8200 zl Switch Series. It is comprised of a stateful firewall, an intrusion detection/prevention system (IDS/IPS), and a virtual private network (VPN) concentrator. It enables network administrators to compartmentalize department traffic, protect the network from malware, and provide secure remote access and site-to-site connectivity.
Reference: HP Threat Management Services zl Module, QuickSpecs
http://h18000.www1.hp.com/products/quickspecs/13376_div/13376_div.PDF Page 1, ProductOverview)

QUESTION NO: 2
Which is a benefit that distinguishes HP PCM+ from HP PCM?

A. Customers can monitor basic device health.
B. Customers can capture and browse Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) and syslog events.
C. Customers can map network devices.
D. Customers can manage their many remote sites.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Your customer’s network provides mission-critical services. The company has customers
worldwide, so these services are being used all the time. The company cannot afford any
downtime. Because the company’s IT staff is relatively new and inexperienced, the customer wants both hardware replacement services and an HP support person onsite if a problem occurs.
Which care pack would you recommend?

A. HP Support Plus
B. HP 24×7 Software Support with 4-hour Hardware Exchange
C. HP Support Plus 24
D. HP 4-hour Same Business Day

Answer: C

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HP2-Z23 Selling HP Enterprise Networking Solutions We believe in helping our customers achieve their goals. For this reason, we take great care while preparing our Questions and Answers , Core Administration. Our practice tests Administration are prepared with the help of highly professional people from the industry, so we benefit from their vast experience and knowledge.

QUESTION NO: 1
What is an important benefit of the IMC platform?

A. consolidates multiple disparate network management applications into a single common platform
B. provides a mainframe-based architecture that centralizes services
C. replaces desktop software licensed applications
D. optimizes use of the legacy PBX platform

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
What Is one of the new rules of networking?

A. borderless networks
B. up to three times better performance
C. simplified network designs
D. up to four time better performance

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
A customer is considering installing a nest generation IT architecture that combines virtualized servers, storage, networks, and facilities into a single environment optimized for any workload.
What is the name of HP’s framework for this type of architecture?

A. HP Merged Infrastructure
B. HP Converted Infrastructure
C. HP Connected Infrastructure
D. HP Converged Infrastructure

Answer: D

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I10-001 XML Master Basic V2 We believe in helping our customers achieve their goals. For this reason, we take great care while preparing our Questions and Answers , Core Administration. Our practice tests Administration are prepared with the help of highly professional people from the industry, so we benefit from their vast experience and knowledge.

QUESTION: 1
Select which statement correctly describes the results of reading the attribute values below using a non-validating XML processor, which does not check validity. Note that [#x9] is shown using #x9,
[#xA] is shown using #xA, [#xD] is shown using #xD, and [#x20] is shown using #x20.
Attribute=”[#xA]
[#x9] data 1[#xD][#xA]
data 2″

A. Attribute=”[#x20][#x20]data 1[#x20]data 2″
B. Attribute=”data 1[#x20]data 2″
C. Attribute=”[#xA]data 1[#xA]data 2″
D. Attribute=”[#xA][#x9]data 1[#xD][#xA]data 2″

Answer: A

QUESTION: 2
Select which statement correctly describes the results of reading the attribute values below using a non-validating XML processor, which does not check validity. Note that [#x9] is shown using #x9,
[#xA] is shown using #xA, [#xD] is shown using #xD, and [#x20] is shown using #x20.
Attribute=”&ENT;”
A. Attribute=”[#x20][#x20]data 1[#x20]data 2″
B. Attribute=”data 1[#x20]data 2″
C. Attribute=”&ENT;”
D. Attribute=”[#xA][#x9]data 1[#xD][#xA]data 2″

Answer: A

QUESTION: 3
Select which statement correctly describes the XML document below.

]>
]]>

A. This is not a valid XML document, because there is no element type declaration for
element2 and element3.
B. This is not a well-formed document, because the CDATA section is not closed.
C. This is not a well-formed document, because the CDATA section does not contain
<![CDATA[.
D. This is a valid XML document.

Answer: D

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I10-002 XML Master: Professional V2 We believe in helping our customers achieve their goals. For this reason, we take great care while preparing our Questions and Answers , Core Administration. Our practice tests Administration are prepared with the help of highly professional people from the industry, so we benefit from their vast experience and knowledge.

QUESTION NO: 1
Select which of the following correctly describes the results of performing a validation check on “XML Document”.Assume that the XML parser correctly processes the XML schema noNamespaceSchemaLocation attribute and the schemaLocation attribute.A. ValidB. The coding for the XML Schema Document is not appropriate; therefore, an error is thrown (initial error) when processing the “testml.xsd” import elementC. The coding for the XML Schema Document is not appropriate; therefore, an error is thrown (initial error) when processing the “testml.xsd” “”D. No processing error, but is not valid.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following correctly describes the DOM (Level 2) Node interface?A. The Node interface can be used to change the value (nodeValue) of the DOM element node (Element)B. The Node interface can be used to change the name (nodeName) of the DOM element node (Element)C. The Node interface can be used to change the value (nodeValue) of the DOM attribute node (Attr)D. The Node interface can be used to change the name (nodeName) of the DOM attribute node (Attr)
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
Select which statement is correct with regards to creating an XML document based on the DTD element type declaration below.
[element type declaration]

A. Both the “notebook” element and the “server” element can be written as a child element of the computer element.
B. As a child element of the “computer” element, the “server” element can be written before the “notebook” element.
C. When writing the “notebook” element, “mouse” must be written as a child element.
D. Only one “mouse” element can be written as a child element of the “notebook” element.

Answer: AB

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I10-003 XML Master Professional Database Administrator We believe in helping our customers achieve their goals. For this reason, we take great care while preparing our Questions and Answers , Core Administration. Our practice tests Administration are prepared with the help of highly professional people from the industry, so we benefit from their vast experience and knowledge.

QUESTION NO: 1
Assume that a certain XMLDB has an HTTP listener function, and can receive XML documents via HTTP protocol.
In this case, the XMLDB follows [Procedure] below to identify the character encoding method of the XML document received.
[Procedure]
(1) If the XML document character encoding method can be determined from the HTTP request header, process the XML document character encoding according to the HTTP request header information.
(2) If the XML document character encoding method cannot be determined from the HTTP request header, identify the character encoding from the XML document itself
Select which is correct as the identified character encoding resulting from the procedure above when the XMLDB receives a well-formed XML document according to [Conditions] below. Assume that the XMLDB follows RFC3023.
[Conditions]
The actual character encoding method for XML document is “UTF-16;” however, no XML
declaration is specified.
The HTTP request header defines “Content-Type: text/xml.” however, the charset parameter is not defined in this Content-Type header field.

A. US-ASCII
B. UTF-8
C. UTF-16
D. The character encoding method is determined from system locale, and is therefore
undetermined

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
Consider the structure of XML when storing date information as XML data. You must aggregate data for each calendar year from this XML data.
Assume that statistical values related to the storage and retrieval of date information in a certain XMLDB is as follows:
[Date Information XML Structure A]
2007-04-OK/date>
[Date Information XML Structure B]
2QQ741
[Statistical Values] (assumed)
The search for one date node (XML structure A) or one y node (XML structure B) takes one microsecond in either case, regardless of search path.
With respect to structure A, two microseconds are required for each date node to determine whether the date element value matches the search year.
With respect to structure B, one microsecond is required for each y node to determine whether they element value is the same as the search year value.
The number of date elements at the initial state is 2000.
The number of date elements will increase with future updates; however, this is not a
consideration for this question.
Insertion of a new date element under structure A takes 10 microseconds.
Insertion of a new date element under structure B takes 20 microseconds.
Do not consider any facts or conditions other than those noted above.
When the average number of new date element insertions per month is 20, and the average number of calendar date information searches per month is 10, which is the most effective XML structure in improving overall execution efficiency for insertions and searches?

A. XML Structure A
B. XML Structure B
C. Under these conditions, both are equivalent

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
Assume that a certain XMLDB can perform a validation check using DTD when inserting an XML document. Select two of the following that are unsuitable when using the xml:id attribute to manage the uniqueness of XML document elements.
Assume that the XMLDB can properly process the xml:id attribute, and that an error is reported when a violation of the xml:id specification occurs.

A. The xml:id attribute can be defined as the ID type using DTD
B. Duplication errors in the values of the xml:id attribute cannot be detected unless a validation check is performed
C. Duplications may occur in the values of the xml:id attribute when combining two XML
documents (neither having errors related to xml:id attributes) into one XML document
D. Duplication errors in the values of the xml:id attribute cannot be detected when the XMLDB does not support XML namespaces

Answer: B,D

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IREB IREB Certified Professional for Requirements Engineering We believe in helping our customers achieve their goals. For this reason, we take great care while preparing our Questions and Answers , Core Administration. Our practice tests Administration are prepared with the help of highly professional people from the industry, so we benefit from their vast experience and knowledge.

QUESTION NO: 1
Which definition best characterizes the term “traceability” in terms of requirements engineering? (Choose two)

A. Traceability of the effort for the elicitation of the requirements, beginning with the elicitation of the documentation right to the point of requirements acceptance
B. Monitoring of progress in requirements elicitation
C. Ability to analyze requirements for contradictory content, especially between the requirements specifications and the test cases
D. Traceability of the requirements, along with the associated documents, from the requirements elicitation to the implementation
E. Level of satisfaction between the elicited and approved requirements

Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 2
Your company works intensively with models with requirements and uses UML for the description of models. Which three capabilities should a modeling tool processes in order to able to create traceable models in the requirements engineering? (Choose three)

A. The model elements can be stored under version control
B. The models are checked for community with the UML definition
C. The model is exported in the XML format
D. Every model element must process anID
E. Model elements can be linked via hyperlinks
F. The modeling tool creates reports suitable for management

Answer: A,C,E

QUESTION NO: 3
Which two statements are correct with regards to the introduction of a requirements engineering tool? (Choose two)

A. The introduction of a tool defines the feature requirements engineering approach
B. Risks associated with the introduction can be identified through a pilot operation
C. The requirements engineering process must be clearly defined before introduction
D. The license costs are generally the greatest cost block relating to the introduction of a
requirements engineering tool

Answer: C,D

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