Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter MB7-842 Microsoft cert24

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter MB7-842 Microsoft cert24
Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter MB7-842 Microsoft cert24

IT Exam,IT Certification,braindump,original questions, question pool,document, braindump, test questions, test question, dumps, test answers, cert24.com, preparation, pdf, certification questions, answers Certification, certification test, practice test, exam dumps, certification training, answers real questions

MB7-842 NAV 2009 Trade & Inventory our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION 1
An item is assigned an Item Tracking Code that has the Manual Expiration Date Entry Required and Strict Expiration Posting check boxes selected. What steps are needed when you process Purchase and Sales Orders for this item? Choose the 2 that apply.

A. For Purchase Orders, on the Item Tracking Lines page, an Expiration Date must be entered manually before the document can post.
B. For Purchase Orders, the Expiration Date entered on the Item Tracking Lines page must be greater than any expiration date entered previously for the item.
C. For Sales Orders, the Lot Number automatically suggested on the Item Tracking Lines page based on FEFO can be changed.
D. For Sales Orders, the Expiration Date on the Item Tracking Lines page must be after the Posting Date.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
On the Reservation page, you can create reservations against four different types of supply. One of the supply types is Purchase Order lines; what are the other three supply types? Choose the 3 that apply.

A. Item Ledger Entry lines
B. Purchase Blanket Order lines
C. Released Production Order lines
D. Firm Planned Production Order lines

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 3
You are the consultant on a Microsoft Dynamics?NAV 2009 implementation. Through discussions, you determine that your client plans to automatically assign sequential serial numbers to a specific purchased item. for this item, what setup and processing recommendations are appropriate for your client? Choose the 2 that apply.

A. Set up an Item Tracking Code, and in the Auto. No. Series field, select the No. Series to use when assigning serial numbers.
B. On the Item Card, select the Item Tracking Code and the No. Series to use when assigning serial numbers.
C. In the Item Tracking Lines page, use the Auto Assign Serial No. function.
D. On the Lines FastTab of the Purchase line, use the Auto Assign Serial No. function.

Answer: BC

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter MB7-842 Microsoft cert24

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter MB7-846 Microsoft cert24

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter MB7-846 Microsoft cert24
Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter MB7-846 Microsoft cert24

IT Exam,IT Certification,braindump,original questions, question pool,document, braindump, test questions, test question, dumps, test answers, cert24.com, preparation, pdf, certification questions, answers Certification, certification test, practice test, exam dumps, certification training, answers real questions

MB7-846 NAV 2009 Relationship Management our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION: 1
You are a sales manager. You create an opportunity for one of the salespeople which you do not activate, so its status is Not Started. When the salesperson obtains specific information on the opportunity, he has to enter this information and activate the opportunity. How can he do it?

A. By selecting the In Progress opportunity status and adding a line with the details to it.
B. By using the Update Opportunity wizard
C. By assigning a sales quote to the opportunity
D. By assigning the opportunity to the relevant contact

Answer: B

QUESTION: 2
How can you prevent a sales cycle from being used when creating new opportunities?

A. By setting the Block check box to Yes
B. By setting the Use check box to No
C. By writing a comment about usage prohibition
D. By creating a new sales cycle with a higher priority

Answer: A

QUESTION: 3
You have a number of sales cycles created for your opportunities. You see that one of the sales cycles fits most of your opportunities, so you decide to use this sales cycle when creating new opportunities. How do you assign this sales cycle to new opportunities?

A. By defining this sales cycle as the first one on the list of sales cycles
B. By selecting the Default Sales Cycle check box for the sales cycle you want to assign
C. By blocking other sales cycles
D. By specifying this sales cycle as a default sales cycle code in the Marketing Setup window

Answer: D

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter MB7-846 Microsoft cert24

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter MB7-848 Microsoft cert24

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter MB7-848 Microsoft cert24
Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter MB7-848 Microsoft cert24

IT Exam,IT Certification,braindump,original questions, question pool,document, braindump, test questions, test question, dumps, test answers, cert24.com, preparation, pdf, certification questions, answers Certification, certification test, practice test, exam dumps, certification training, answers real questions

MB7-848 NAV 2009 Service Management our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION: 1
You create a service contract. You want the program to invoice this service contract every
quarter. How do you reflect this in the Service Contract window?

A. Select the Combine Invoices check box
B. Specify the value in the Next Invoice Date field
C. Select the appropriate value in the Next Invoice Period field
D. Select the appropriate value in the Invoice Period field

Answer: D

QUESTION: 2
How does the program behave when calculating the response date and time for service orders and quotes linked to the service contract if specific service hours are not set up?

A. The program shows an error message prompting to set up the service hours.
B. The program uses the default service hours.
C. The program uses the service hours specified for the last contract you worked on.
D. The program uses the hours specified in the base calendar.

Answer: B

QUESTION: 3
What actions does the program perform when you sign a service contract?

A. Suggest creating a service order
B. Suggest creating a service item
C. Recalculate response time on the contract lines
D. Update the status of the service contract

Answer: D

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter MB7-848 Microsoft cert24

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter MB7-849 Microsoft cert24

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter MB7-849 Microsoft cert24
Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter MB7-849 Microsoft cert24

IT Exam,IT Certification,braindump,original questions, question pool,document, braindump, test questions, test question, dumps, test answers, cert24.com, preparation, pdf, certification questions, answers Certification, certification test, practice test, exam dumps, certification training, answers real questions

MB7-849 NAV 2009 Manufacturing our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION: 1
In Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009, the Reorder Cycle can be set on each item. What is
the typical relationship between item cost and reorder cycle?

A. There is no relationship between item cost and reorder cycle.
B. The higher the cost, the longer the reorder cycle.
C. The higher the cost, the shorter the reorder cycle.
D. The highest cost item has a reorder cycle of one day. Reorder cycles for the remaining
items are calculated from this item.

Answer: C

QUESTION: 2
Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 supports multi-level Bills of Material (BOMs). What are
the maximum number of levels supported?

A. 25
B. 50
C. 75
D. 100

Answer: B

QUESTION: 3
You are the consultant for a Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 implementation. Your client
has set up the following routing:
Step No. Description
10 Wheel Assembly
20 Chain Assembly
30 Final Assembly
40 Control
A portion of a production BOM set up by your client is as follows:
Item No. Description
1100 Front Wheel
1200 Back Wheel
1300 Chain Assembly
1650 Pedals
Forward flushing is selected on the Item cards for all of the components. Your client
wants to forward flush the chain assembly and pedals when the chain assembly routing
step begins. What setup must be completed to forward flush the components?

A. Select the Forward Flush check box on the line for the chain assembly step on the
routing. In the Consume at Routing Step field on the pedal and chain assembly lines of
the production BOM, enter the chain assembly step number from the routing.
B. In the Consume at Routing Step field on the pedal and chain assembly lines of the
production BOM, enter the chain assembly step number from the routing.
C. In the Linked Item table for the chain assembly step on the routing, add the pedal and
chain assembly items from the production BOM.
D. Assign the same routing link code to the chain assembly step on the routing and the
pedal and chain assembly components on the production BOM.

Answer: D

QUESTION: 4
When the Location Mandatory check box is selected in Inventory Setup, what other setup
is necessary for planning to be accurate?

A. A stockkeeping unit must be set up for each location where an item is planned.
B. The planning worksheet must be set up for processing on a location basis.
C. Item Cards must have the Location Code field populated.
D. The Planning check box must be selected for the appropriate posting groups in
Inventory Posting Setup.

Answer: A

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter MB7-849 Microsoft cert24

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter N10-004 CompTIA cert24

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter N10-004 CompTIA cert24
Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter N10-004 CompTIA cert24

IT Exam,IT Certification,braindump,original questions, question pool,document, braindump, test questions, test question, dumps, test answers, cert24.com, preparation, pdf, certification questions, answers Certification, certification test, practice test, exam dumps, certification training, answers real questions

N10-004 CompTIA Network+(2009 Edition) our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION 1
An administrator wants to limit access of a wireless network without requiring authorized users to enter a password or network key. Which of the following methods would MOST likely be implemented on the wireless network?

A. Disable SSID
B. WPA
C. MAC filtering
D. RAS

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a form of encrypting packets for safe, secure data transmission within a network?

A. RAS
B. PPTP
C. IPSec
D. ICA

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following remote access methods allows an administrator to take control of a user’s machine and block the user from seeing the active session?

A. PPP
B. PPPoE
C. RDP
D. RAS

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following devices is used to connect multiple devices to a network and does not stop broadcast traffic?

A. Switch
B. Hub
C. Modem
D. Repeater

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
An administrator wants to prevent users from plugging in their personal laptops and accessing the Internet without a member of the IT staff configuring the machine first. Which of the following would MOST likely be installed?

A. Multilayer switch
B. CSU
C. Proxy server
D. IDS

Answer: C

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter N10-004 CompTIA cert24

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter N10-005 CompTIA cert24

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter N10-005 CompTIA cert24

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter N10-005 CompTIA cert24

IT Exam,IT Certification,braindump,original questions, question pool,document, braindump, test questions, test question, dumps, test answers, cert24.com, preparation, pdf, certification questions, answers Certification, certification test, practice test, exam dumps, certification training, answers real questions

N10-005 CompTIA Network+Certification Exam our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO:1
A company has installed a VPN concentrator at the main company headquarters and needs employees that travel to access the company network. Which of the following solutions will allow the employees to access the VPN without installing client software?

A. Kerberos
B. SSL VPN
C. Site-to-site VPN
D. WPA enterprise

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2
An owner is planning a small home based network. The owner needs to connect PCs in four different rooms for file sharing. Cost, ease of installation, and ability to relocate the PCs for group work needs to be considered. Which of the following is the BEST topology to use?

A. Ethernet 10baseT
B. Virtual server
C. 802.11n
D. SSL VPN

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following describes a single computer that is setup specifically to lure hackers into revealing their methods, and preventing real attacks on the production network?

A. Evil twin
B. Honeypot
C. DMZ
D. Honeynet

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4
Fifty users in an office are actively connected to the wireless network. A new employee is given the password, but is not able to connect to the network. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

A. SSID broadcast was disabled.
B. The channels are configured incorrectly.
C. The wireless network has reached the maximum number of users.
D. Interference is occurring.

Answer: A

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter N10-005 CompTIA cert24

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter NS0-154 Network Appliance cert24

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter NS0-154 Network Appliance cert24
Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter NS0-154 Network Appliance cert24

IT Exam,IT Certification,braindump,original questions, question pool,document, braindump, test questions, test question, dumps, test answers, cert24.com, preparation, pdf, certification questions, answers Certification, certification test, practice test, exam dumps, certification training, answers real questions

NS0-154 Data ONTAP 8.0 7-Mode Administrator our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
When using SnapRestore to restore a single LUN, the LUN must be ___________.
A. exported and accessible
B. mapped to a Windows server
C. mounted on a host
D. taken offline or unmapped
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2
Which three attributes would you specify when creating a LUN? (Choose three.)
A. The path to the LUN.
B. The size of the LUN.
C. The version of Data ONTAP.
D. The host operating system of the system attached to the LUN.
Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 3
For aggregates or traditional volume SyncMirror to work correctly, the configuration of each plex
should be identical with regard to ____________.
A. NVRAM
B. Mirrored Snapshot copies
C. RAID groups and disk sizes
D. NDMP and Snapshot copies
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4
What happens when two aggregates are rejoined?
A. It is not possible to rejoin aggregates.
B. Data ONTAP will always retain data from the newest aggregate.
C. Both aggregates revert to the last common snapshot before the split.
D. You will have a large new aggregate containing all volumes from both aggregates.
E. One of the aggregates will be overwritten and you will lose any data changed on it after the
split.
Answer: E

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter NS0-154 Network Appliance cert24

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter NS0-510 Network Appliance cert24

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter NS0-510 Network Appliance cert24
Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter NS0-510 Network Appliance cert24

IT Exam,IT Certification,braindump,original questions, question pool,document, braindump, test questions, test question, dumps, test answers, cert24.com, preparation, pdf, certification questions, answers Certification, certification test, practice test, exam dumps, certification training, answers real questions

NS0-510 NCIE – Backup and Recovery Implementation Engineer Exam our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
You are planning to install SnapManager for Microsoft SharePoint Server. On which servers should you install the SnapManager manager software and the SnapManager Agent software?

A. SnapManager Manager and Agent software must be installed on the same host.
B. SnapManager Manager and Agent software cannot be installed on the same host.
C. SnapManager Manager and Agent software must both be installed on the same host as the SharePoint Administrator software.
D. SnapManager Manager software must be installed on the same host as the SharePoint
Administrator software.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO:2
Where can you see the data not managed by a protection policy in the NetApp Management Console?

A. Data > OSSV
B. Data > Unprotect Data
C. Data > Hosts > Volumes
D. Data > External Relationships

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
What are two reasons for mounting the contents of a backup to a VMware ESX server? (Choose two.)

A. to verify the content using the vSphere Client
B. to use the vSphere Client to restore lost datastores
C. to enhance performance of the guest virtual machines
D. to convert or upgrade guest virtual machines

Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 4
Which four actions would take place during a data-protection assessment? (Choose four.)

A. determine if a proof of concept phase is needed
B. agree on the Professional Service SOW and purchase order as early as possible
C. consider only NetApp Snapshot, SnapMirror, and SnapVault technology, regardless of the existing backup solutions
D. analyze customer data protection backup and disaster recovery goals compared to NetApp data protection technology
E. gather information about the customer’s existing infrastructure
F. visit executive Briefing Center so experts can provide education to the customer, concerning NetApp offerings

Answer: A,D,E,F

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter NS0-510 Network Appliance cert24

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter OG0-9AB The Open Group cert24

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter OG0-9AB The Open Group cert24
Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter OG0-9AB The Open Group cert24

IT Exam,IT Certification,braindump,original questions, question pool,document, braindump, test questions, test question, dumps, test answers, cert24.com, preparation, pdf, certification questions, answers Certification, certification test, practice test, exam dumps, certification training, answers real questions

OG0-9AB TOGAF 8 – 9 Advanced Bridge our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
According to TOGAF, which of the following are the architecture domains that are commonly accepted subsets of an overall enterprise architecture?

A. Application, Business, Data, Technology
B. Capability, Segment, Strategic
C. Context, Definition, Governance, Transformation
D. Definition, Realization, Transition, Vision

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
In TOGAF, what is the difference between an artifact and a deliverable?

A. An artifact will contain one or more deliverables
B. Artifacts and deliverables are synonymous; there is no difference between them
C. Deliverables are prepared by the Project Manager, whereas artifacts are defined by the
Architect
D. Deliverables are reusable, whereas artifacts are unique to a given architecture project
E. Deliverables are specified as contractual outputs from a project, whereas artifacts are not

Answer: E

QUESTION NO: 3
Which one of the following describes the main components within the TOGAF Architecture
Repository?

A. Organizational Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, Best Practices, ReferenceLibrary, Compliance Strategy
B. Architecture Metamodel, Organizational Capability Model, Application Landscape, SIB,
Reference Library,Governance Model
C. Business Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference
Library,Governance Log
D. Architecture Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,Governance Log
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4
If a technique is referenced by processes categorized as TOGAF Core and TOGAF Mandated in the Document Categorization Model, then in which category should it be placed?

A. TOGAF Extension
B. TOGAF Guidelines and Techniques
C. TOGAF Recommended
D. TOGAF Supporting

Answer: C

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter OG0-9AB The Open Group cert24

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter OG0-093 The Open Group cert24

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter OG0-093 The Open Group cert24
Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter OG0-093 The Open Group cert24

IT Exam,IT Certification,braindump,original questions, question pool,document, braindump, test questions, test question, dumps, test answers, cert24.com, preparation, pdf, certification questions, answers Certification, certification test, practice test, exam dumps, certification training, answers real questions

OG0-093 TOGAF 9 Combined Part 1 and Part 2 our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
Complete the sentence. The practice by which the enterprise architecture is managed and
controlled at an enterprise level is known as____________.
A. Architecture governance
B. Corporate governance
C. IT governance
D. Portfolio management
E. Technology governance

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following best describes the TOGAF classification in Phase H for a re-architecting change?
A. A change driven by a requirement to derive additional value from the existing investment
B. A change driven by a requirement to increase investment in order to create new value for exploitation
C. A change driven by a requirement to reduce costs
D. A change driven by a requirement to reduce investment
E. A change driven by a requirement to re-align with the business strategy

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Business Transformation Readiness Assessment technique?
A. To determine if the organization is ready to undergo change
B. To determine if the stakeholders support the implementation plan
C. To ensure that there are adequate trained engineers to develop the solution
D. To ensure that there is sufficient funding to execute the transformation
E. To plan the migration steps needed to achieve the transformation

Answer: A

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter OG0-093 The Open Group cert24