Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter OMG-OCUP-100 OMG cert24
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OMG-OCUP-100 OMG-Certified UML Professional Fundamental Exam our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
What is true about a data type? (Choose two)

A. Its instances are data values.
B. Its instances are mutable objects.
C. Its instances are identified by GUIDs.
D. It is a classifier that must not be abstract.
E. It is the only kind of type that can be returned by an operation.
F. It can be diagrammed as a rectangle with the keyword dataType

Answer: A, F

Question: 2
What are the primary purposes of packages in UML 2.0? (Choose two)

A. to group classes
B. to provide a namespace
C. to group features for a class
D. to group modeling elements
E. to avoid the constraints of a namespace

Answer: B, D

Question: 3
What are true statements about dependencies? (Choose two)

A. Dependency relationships are intransitive.
B. Dependency relationships have runtime semantics implications.
C. Dependency relationships do not have runtime semantics implications.
D. A dependency implies the semantics of the client(s) are complete without the
supplier(s).
E. A dependency implies the semantics of the client(s) are incomplete without the
supplier(s).

Answer: C, E

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Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter P_ADM_SEC_70 SAP cert24
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P_ADM_SEC_70 SAP Certified Technology Professional – Security with SAP NetWeaver 7.0 our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
Where should the synchronization of user data between an AS ABAP based system and a
directory server be started?

A. The synchronization should be started from the directory server regardless of the direction of the synchronization.
B. The location from which the synchronization is started can be customized using transaction LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol).
C. The synchronization should be started from the SAP system, regardless of the direction of the synchronization.
D. The location from which the synchronization is started can be maintained using the profile parameter ldap/sync_start.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2
When using CUA (Central User Administration), which option should be assigned to all system users?
A. Dialog
B. Communication (CPIC in older releases)
C. System
D. Service
E. Reference

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following statements regarding the Central User Administration (CUA) is true?

A. CUA is not used to centrally administer initial passwords for SAP users.
B. Users of the child systems must not exist in the central system.
C. Initial passwords are distributed non-coded.
D. The global lock can only be canceled in the central system.

Answer: B

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Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter PK0-003 CompTIA cert24
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PK0-003 Project+ (2009) our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION 1
A project manager is responsible for meeting with the companys project review board to periodically evaluate the progress on a project. Which of the following is the role of the board?

A. To supply audit trail oversight
B. To ensure local standards compliance
C. To provide decision oversight
D. To communicate to stakeholders

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following are components of an internal / external communication plan? (Select TWO).

A. Technology requirements
B. Communication budget
C. Distribution list
D. Stakeholders list
E. Communication frequency

Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
A project manager creates a detailed list of costs for each activity involved in the project and then uses the sum of the individual activities to create the budget. Which of the following cost estimating techniques was used?

A. Bottom-up
B. Expert judgment
C. Parametric
D. Top-down

Answer: A

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PMI-001 Project Management Professional our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
Define Activities is typically performed by which of the following:

A. Project Manager who created the WBS
B. Management
C. Project Team Members responsible for the work package
D. Project Stakeholder

Answer: C

Explanation:
Define Activities is typically performed by Project Team Members. identify the activities that need to be done to complete the project.

QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following is closest to Juran’s definition of Quality:

A. conformance to requirements.
B. fitness for use.
C. customer focus.
D. continuous improvement.
E. All of the other alternatives apply.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following MUST NOT performed in project initiation process?

A. identify the requirements.
B. identify business need.
C. create project scope statement.
D. create project charter.

Answer: C

Explanation:
project scope statement created during project planning phase.

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PRINCE2 PRINCE2 Foundation our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is not an objective of the process Initiating a Project?
A. It encourages the Project Board to take ownership of the project
B. It provides the benchmark for decision-making processes throughout the projects life
C. It confirms the existence of an acceptable Business Case justifying the project
D. It ensures that all project management authorities are appointed
Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT an objective of the process Controlling a Stage?
A. Ensure that quality is achieved as planned
B. Manage any deviations from Stage or Project Plans
C. Identifying the key products that the project will deliver
D. Manage on-time delivery of products within agreed tolerances
Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Whose responsibility is it to supply the Customer’s quality expectations?
A. Project Manager
B. Senior User
C. Executive
D. Senior Supplier
Answer: B

QUESTION 4
The Project Board keeps a control of the project through:
1. Highlight Reports

2. Checkpoint Reports
3. Exception assessment
4. Quality Log
A. 1, 3 and 4 only
B. All of the above
C. land 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is a stable element within the Project Initiation Document?
A. Business Case
B. Project Plan
C. Project tolerance
D. Risk Log
Answer: C

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SK0-003 CompTIA Server+Certification Exam our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following BEST describes RAID 10?

A. Mirroring with striping
B. Mirroring with fault tolerance
C. Striping
D. Striping with distributed parity

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following BEST describes RAID 1?

A. Mirroring
B. Striping
C. Striping with parity
D. Striping with mirroring

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following BEST describes RAID 0?

A. Striping with parity
B. Striping with mirroring
C. Mirroring
D. Striping

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following BEST describes the difference between RAID 5 and RAID 6?

A. RAID 5 uses a dedicated parity drive and RAID 6 does not.
B. RAID 6 uses a dedicated parity drive and RAID 5 does not.
C. RAID 6 uses more parity drives than RAID 5.
D. RAID 5 uses more parity drives than RAID 6.

Answer: C

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1Z0-050 Oracle Database 11g: New Features for Administrators our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION 1
You performed the RMAN database backup having a backupset key number 231 with the KEEP FOREVER option. After some days, you want to change the status of the database backup and you issued the following command:
RMAN>CHANGE BACKUPSET 231 NOKEEP;
What is the implication of this command?

A. The backup is deleted.
B. The backup is marked unavailable.
C. The backup overrides the backup retention policy.
D. the backup becomes eligible for deletion according to the existing retention policy

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true regarding hot patching? (Choose two.)

A. It requires relinking of the Oracle binary.
B. It does not require database instance shutdown.
C. It can detect conflicts between two online patches.
D. It is available for installing all patches on all platforms.
E. It works only in a single database instance environment.

Answer: B,C

QUESTION 3
You are in the process of creating a virtual private catalog in your Oracle Database 11 g database.
The PROD1 PROD and PROD3 Oracle Database 10g databases are registered in the base recovery catalog. The database user who own the base recovery catalog is CATOWNER.
CATOWNER executes the following command to grant privileges to a new user VPC1 using Oracle Database 11 g RMAN executables:
RMAN> GRANT CATALOG FOR DATABASE prod1, prod2 TO vpc1;
Then you issue the following commands:
RMAN> CONNECT CATALOG vpc1/oracle@catdb;
RMAN> SQL “EXEC catowner.dbms_rcvcat.create_virtual_catalog;”
What is the outcome of the above commands?

A. They execute and create a virtual catalog for pre-Oracle 11 g clients.
B. They produce an error because PROD1 and PROD2 databases belong to the older version.
C. They produce an error because you need to connect as CATOWNER to execute this packaged procedure.
D. They produce an error because you need to connect to the target database to execute this packaged procedure.

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You installed Oracle Database 11g afresh. Which statements are true regarding the default audit settings in this database? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Auditing is enabled for all privileges.
B. Auditing is disabled for all privileges.
C. The audit trail is stored in the database
D. The audit trail is stored in an operating system file.
E. Auditing is enabled for certain privileges related to database security.

Answer: C,E

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Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter ST0-91X Symantec cert24
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ST0-91X Symantec NetBackup 7.0 for UNIX(STS) our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION 1
An organization needs to automatically back up a server’s data every other Sunday with a backup start window from 7 p.m. to 10 p.m. It is expected that manual backups will never be run. How can this backup be configured to ensure that the backup runs every other Sunday as accurately as possible?

A. Schedule type: CalendarCalendar Schedule: Recurring Week Days: 1st and 3rd Sunday
B. Schedule type: CalendarCalendar Schedule: Recurring Week Days: 2nd and 4th Sunday
C. Schedule type: Frequency, once per 2 weeks
D. Schedule type: Frequency, once per 13 days

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
An organization has the following requirements for a server’s backup data:
Two copies need to be retained for the same backup data. One copy needs to be sent to disk with a retention period of one month. A second copy needs to be sent to tape with a retention period of six months. The copy on disk may only be automatically deleted by Symantec NetBackup 7.0 after one month. Because of licensing, this must be configured avoiding using storage lifecycle policies. How can a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 administrator configure a backup policy, maximizing automation, to meet these requirements?

A. create a basic disk staging storage unit with a fixed retention of one month and staging to
tape with a retention of six months; configure the backup policy to use this disk
B. configure the backup policy to back up to a basic disk with retention of one month; run the
bpduplicate command to duplicate to tape with retention of six months
C. configure two identical schedules for the same policy, then configure one schedule to go to
a basic disk with retention of one month and configure the other schedule to go to tape with
retention of six months
D. configure the backup policy so that the schedule runs multiple backups: one to basic disk
with one month retention, and one to tape with six months retention

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
An administrator has created a schedule named “full” within a policy named “unixclients” for a UNIX client.
Where should the administrator create the exclude list for this policy?

A. /usr/openv/netbackup/exclude_list.full.unixclients
B. /usr/openv/netbackup/exclude_list.unixclients.full
C. /usr/openv/netbackup/client/exclude_list.full.unixclients
D. /usr/openv/netbackup/client/exclude_list.unixclients.full

Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Where are exclude list configurations stored?

A. media server
B. master server
C. client
D. Enterprise Media Manager (EMM) server

Answer: C

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ST0-099 Symantec Enterprise Vault 9.0(STS) our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION 1
A company deploys Enterprise Vault (EV) in a building block configuration and plans to set up multiple vault store groups. The company has one domain within which four Exchange servers are located. To archive from all of these servers, how many Provisioning Tasks must be created?

A. one per EV Server
B. one per Exchange Server
C. one per EV site
D. one per Vault Store Group
E. one per Active Directory domain

Answer: E

QUESTION 2
An administrator has configured Exchange Journal archiving. Company policy requires searches to handle top-level messages and attachments as a single item for search term matches. Which value in IndexServer.exe /Summary verifies this ability?

A. Search Flags
B. Schema Flags
C. Item Sequence Number
D. Index Format

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An organization has an Enterprise Vault (EV) server in a datacenter in Site A. They have remote offices in Site B, Site C, and Site D. The WAN connection between Site A and Site D is intermittent at times, which results in Site D users being unable to search or access archived items. Which EV feature should be used in Site D to help alleviate this situation?

A. install EV Virtual Services
B. employ EV QoS Services
C. enable Vault Cache for the users
D. deploy an Offline Vault Store

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What is the minimum version of the .NET framework required on the Enterprise Vault Server for Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange?

A. .NET 4.0
B. .NET 3.5 SP1
C. .NET 1.1 and 2.0
D. .NET 2.0 and 3.0 SP2

Answer: B

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Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter ST0-172 Symantec cert24
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ST0-172 Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for Windows Technical Assessment our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
A storage unit group is configured that has disk and then tape listed. During a backup session, jobs start retrying and then running on the tape device only. What is a likely cause of the change?

A. The disk storage unit is full.
B. The tape device was listed first in the storage unit group.
C. The tape device was listed second in the storage unit group.
D. The disk storage unit is staging to tape.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
A backup of Symantec NetBackup 7.5 client using a master server named master1 fails with the error: “access to the client was not allowed(59)”.
When the administrator runs bpclntcmd -hn master1 on the client, the command returns:
C: /Program Files/Veritas/NetBackup/bin > bpclntcmd -hn master1 client hostname could not be found alter client: master1 : not found. (48)
What are two causes of the errors? (Select two.)

A. master1 hostname lookup failure
B. The client name is missing from the policy.
C. Reverse Host Name Lookup is prohibited.
D. Allow Server Writes is enabled.
E. The client name is missing from the master server list.

Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 3
An administrator successfully creates a disk pool for Symantec NetBackup 7.5, then attempts to create a new storage unit using the bpstuadd command. In the bpstuadd command, the storage unit name is specified as diskpool1_storageunit-#01. An error message is returned indicating the storage unit name is invalid. How should the storage unit name be modified to fix the problem?

A. remove the “-” from the name
B. remove all the numbers from the name
C. remove the “#” from the name
D. shorten the name to fewer than twenty characters

Answer: B

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