Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter SK0-003 CompTIA cert24
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SK0-003 CompTIA Server+Certification Exam our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following BEST describes RAID 10?

A. Mirroring with striping
B. Mirroring with fault tolerance
C. Striping
D. Striping with distributed parity

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following BEST describes RAID 1?

A. Mirroring
B. Striping
C. Striping with parity
D. Striping with mirroring

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following BEST describes RAID 0?

A. Striping with parity
B. Striping with mirroring
C. Mirroring
D. Striping

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following BEST describes the difference between RAID 5 and RAID 6?

A. RAID 5 uses a dedicated parity drive and RAID 6 does not.
B. RAID 6 uses a dedicated parity drive and RAID 5 does not.
C. RAID 6 uses more parity drives than RAID 5.
D. RAID 5 uses more parity drives than RAID 6.

Answer: C

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Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter SPS-200 IBM cert24
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SPS-200 IBMSPSSMPRO: IBM SPSS Modeler Professional our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION 1
Using the Linear node, what are the advantages of creating a standard model without boosting or bagging? (Select all that apply)
A. Higher accuracy
B. Easier interpretation
C. Faster to score
D. None of the above

Answer: A,C

QUESTION 2
What are the options for defining outliers in the Data Audit node? (Select all that apply)
A. Standard deviation from the mean
B. Values that represent less than 15% of all values
C. Eigen values greater than 1
D. Interlunar the number

Answer: A,D

QUESTION 3
Which node allows you to choose from many different graph types (tar charts, attempts, hampers)
in the single node?
A. Collection node
B. Multiple node
C. Graphboard node
D. Evaluation node

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What are the advantages of pruning Decision Tree models? (Select all that apply.)
A. Pruning can help simplify the tree.
B. Pruning in make the tree easier to interpret.
C. Pruning can improve the generalization of the tree.
D. Pruning can increase the accuracy of the tree.

Answer: A,C

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Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter 1Z0-050 Oracle cert24
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1Z0-050 Oracle Database 11g: New Features for Administrators our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION 1
You performed the RMAN database backup having a backupset key number 231 with the KEEP FOREVER option. After some days, you want to change the status of the database backup and you issued the following command:
RMAN>CHANGE BACKUPSET 231 NOKEEP;
What is the implication of this command?

A. The backup is deleted.
B. The backup is marked unavailable.
C. The backup overrides the backup retention policy.
D. the backup becomes eligible for deletion according to the existing retention policy

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true regarding hot patching? (Choose two.)

A. It requires relinking of the Oracle binary.
B. It does not require database instance shutdown.
C. It can detect conflicts between two online patches.
D. It is available for installing all patches on all platforms.
E. It works only in a single database instance environment.

Answer: B,C

QUESTION 3
You are in the process of creating a virtual private catalog in your Oracle Database 11 g database.
The PROD1 PROD and PROD3 Oracle Database 10g databases are registered in the base recovery catalog. The database user who own the base recovery catalog is CATOWNER.
CATOWNER executes the following command to grant privileges to a new user VPC1 using Oracle Database 11 g RMAN executables:
RMAN> GRANT CATALOG FOR DATABASE prod1, prod2 TO vpc1;
Then you issue the following commands:
RMAN> CONNECT CATALOG vpc1/oracle@catdb;
RMAN> SQL “EXEC catowner.dbms_rcvcat.create_virtual_catalog;”
What is the outcome of the above commands?

A. They execute and create a virtual catalog for pre-Oracle 11 g clients.
B. They produce an error because PROD1 and PROD2 databases belong to the older version.
C. They produce an error because you need to connect as CATOWNER to execute this packaged procedure.
D. They produce an error because you need to connect to the target database to execute this packaged procedure.

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You installed Oracle Database 11g afresh. Which statements are true regarding the default audit settings in this database? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Auditing is enabled for all privileges.
B. Auditing is disabled for all privileges.
C. The audit trail is stored in the database
D. The audit trail is stored in an operating system file.
E. Auditing is enabled for certain privileges related to database security.

Answer: C,E

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Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter ST0-91X Symantec cert24
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ST0-91X Symantec NetBackup 7.0 for UNIX(STS) our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION 1
An organization needs to automatically back up a server’s data every other Sunday with a backup start window from 7 p.m. to 10 p.m. It is expected that manual backups will never be run. How can this backup be configured to ensure that the backup runs every other Sunday as accurately as possible?

A. Schedule type: CalendarCalendar Schedule: Recurring Week Days: 1st and 3rd Sunday
B. Schedule type: CalendarCalendar Schedule: Recurring Week Days: 2nd and 4th Sunday
C. Schedule type: Frequency, once per 2 weeks
D. Schedule type: Frequency, once per 13 days

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
An organization has the following requirements for a server’s backup data:
Two copies need to be retained for the same backup data. One copy needs to be sent to disk with a retention period of one month. A second copy needs to be sent to tape with a retention period of six months. The copy on disk may only be automatically deleted by Symantec NetBackup 7.0 after one month. Because of licensing, this must be configured avoiding using storage lifecycle policies. How can a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 administrator configure a backup policy, maximizing automation, to meet these requirements?

A. create a basic disk staging storage unit with a fixed retention of one month and staging to
tape with a retention of six months; configure the backup policy to use this disk
B. configure the backup policy to back up to a basic disk with retention of one month; run the
bpduplicate command to duplicate to tape with retention of six months
C. configure two identical schedules for the same policy, then configure one schedule to go to
a basic disk with retention of one month and configure the other schedule to go to tape with
retention of six months
D. configure the backup policy so that the schedule runs multiple backups: one to basic disk
with one month retention, and one to tape with six months retention

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
An administrator has created a schedule named “full” within a policy named “unixclients” for a UNIX client.
Where should the administrator create the exclude list for this policy?

A. /usr/openv/netbackup/exclude_list.full.unixclients
B. /usr/openv/netbackup/exclude_list.unixclients.full
C. /usr/openv/netbackup/client/exclude_list.full.unixclients
D. /usr/openv/netbackup/client/exclude_list.unixclients.full

Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Where are exclude list configurations stored?

A. media server
B. master server
C. client
D. Enterprise Media Manager (EMM) server

Answer: C

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ST0-099 Symantec Enterprise Vault 9.0(STS) our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION 1
A company deploys Enterprise Vault (EV) in a building block configuration and plans to set up multiple vault store groups. The company has one domain within which four Exchange servers are located. To archive from all of these servers, how many Provisioning Tasks must be created?

A. one per EV Server
B. one per Exchange Server
C. one per EV site
D. one per Vault Store Group
E. one per Active Directory domain

Answer: E

QUESTION 2
An administrator has configured Exchange Journal archiving. Company policy requires searches to handle top-level messages and attachments as a single item for search term matches. Which value in IndexServer.exe /Summary verifies this ability?

A. Search Flags
B. Schema Flags
C. Item Sequence Number
D. Index Format

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An organization has an Enterprise Vault (EV) server in a datacenter in Site A. They have remote offices in Site B, Site C, and Site D. The WAN connection between Site A and Site D is intermittent at times, which results in Site D users being unable to search or access archived items. Which EV feature should be used in Site D to help alleviate this situation?

A. install EV Virtual Services
B. employ EV QoS Services
C. enable Vault Cache for the users
D. deploy an Offline Vault Store

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What is the minimum version of the .NET framework required on the Enterprise Vault Server for Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange?

A. .NET 4.0
B. .NET 3.5 SP1
C. .NET 1.1 and 2.0
D. .NET 2.0 and 3.0 SP2

Answer: B

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Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter ST0-172 Symantec cert24
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ST0-172 Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for Windows Technical Assessment our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
A storage unit group is configured that has disk and then tape listed. During a backup session, jobs start retrying and then running on the tape device only. What is a likely cause of the change?

A. The disk storage unit is full.
B. The tape device was listed first in the storage unit group.
C. The tape device was listed second in the storage unit group.
D. The disk storage unit is staging to tape.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
A backup of Symantec NetBackup 7.5 client using a master server named master1 fails with the error: “access to the client was not allowed(59)”.
When the administrator runs bpclntcmd -hn master1 on the client, the command returns:
C: /Program Files/Veritas/NetBackup/bin > bpclntcmd -hn master1 client hostname could not be found alter client: master1 : not found. (48)
What are two causes of the errors? (Select two.)

A. master1 hostname lookup failure
B. The client name is missing from the policy.
C. Reverse Host Name Lookup is prohibited.
D. Allow Server Writes is enabled.
E. The client name is missing from the master server list.

Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 3
An administrator successfully creates a disk pool for Symantec NetBackup 7.5, then attempts to create a new storage unit using the bpstuadd command. In the bpstuadd command, the storage unit name is specified as diskpool1_storageunit-#01. An error message is returned indicating the storage unit name is invalid. How should the storage unit name be modified to fix the problem?

A. remove the “-” from the name
B. remove all the numbers from the name
C. remove the “#” from the name
D. shorten the name to fewer than twenty characters

Answer: B

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Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter SY0-301 CompTIA cert24
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SY0-301 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
A programmer cannot change the production system directly and must have code changes reviewed and approved by the production system manager. Which of the following describes this control type?
A. Discretionary access control
B. Separation of duties
C. Security policy
D. Job rotation

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2
ARP poison routing attacks are an example of which of the following?
A. Distributed Denial of Service
B. Smurf Attack
C. Man-in-the-middle
D. Vishing

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
A company hires a security firm to assess the security of the company’s network. The company does not provide the firm with any internal knowledge or documentation of the network. Which of the following should the security firm perform?
A. Black hat
B. Black box
C. Gray hat
D. Gray box

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 277
Steganography is a form of which of the following?
A. Block ciphering
B. Quantum cryptography
C. Security through obscurity
D. Asymmetric encryption

Answer: C

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Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter TE0-123 NCR Teradata cert24
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TE0-123 Teradata 12 Physical Design and Implementation exam our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

Q1
Which situation is most likely to be a good candidate to consider for a multi-column statistic?
(Choose one.)
A. multi-column USI
B. multi-level partitioning columns
C. multi-column non-equalityjoin columns
D. multiple columns participating in a NUSI

Answer: B

Q2
In what order are the columns concatenated for multi-column statistics?
A. field ID order
B. alphabetical order of the columns
C. column size order (smallest to largest)
D. order of columns in the COLLECT STATISTICS statement

Answer: A

Q3
Which two are limitations of a UPI? (Choose two.)
A. It may not be compressed.
B. It may contain no more than 32 columns.
C. It may not be defined on a Volatile Table.
D. It may not be defined in a single table join index.

Answer: C,D

Q4
A user is looking at an Explain plan and notices the Optimizer is going to duplicate a large table
on all AMPs instead of performing a product join. What is the most likely reason the Optimizer
chose this plan?
A. The statistics might be stale.
B. The join column is not indexed on either table.
C. The plan will save CPU by duplicating large tables onto all AMPs.
D. A hash join will be used in the current step instead of a product join.

Answer: D

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Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter TK0-201 CompTIA cert24
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TK0-201 CTT+ Exam (Certified Technical Trainer) our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
An instructor has a learner in the class that needs to frequently check and reply to email during the course time. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the instructor to take?

A. Dismiss the learner from the class as they are not focused on the material.
B. Ask the learner to dismiss themselves from the class when they need to check and reply to email.
C. Inform the learner that their action is inappropriate and they need to check their email only during breaks.
D. Ask the learner to take the necessary steps to cause the least distraction to the rest of the class.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following is important when an instructor is leading a group discussion?

A. Learning is enhanced through interaction and conversation
B. Designate someone in the group to be the leader
C. The group’s individual knowledge of the members of the group
D. The amount of time it takes for each group to solve an issue

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
An instructor has given the class materials to complete an assignment and instructs them to start.
One of the learners finishes the assignment in two minutes, but the instructor says it is incomplete.
Which of the following should the instructor have done to clarify the requirements for the
assignment?

A. Hand out written instructions so the learners can refer back to them
B. Demonstrate the assignment for the learner
C. Review the instructions and check for understanding
D. Email the instructions before the course starts so the learners can prepare for the assignment

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4
Using every available feature of a computer-based graphic presentation is:

A. A benefit to the visual learner.
B. Distracting to the learner.
C. An excellent use of training materials.
D. A creative use of resources.

Answer: B

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Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter UM0-100 Omg cert24
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UM0-100 Omg-Certified uml professional fundamental exam our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
What is the difference between the <> and ype?stereotypes?

A. <>and <> only differ by programming language.
B. <> and <> are synonymous.
C. <>contains objects and <> contains values.
D. <> define physical implementation and <> does not.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A property is a feature that can be represented in what ways? (Choose two)

A. as an association
B. as an attribute in a class
C. as an association end
D. as an indication of whether the feature is public or private
E. as an operation in a class

Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
What is true of primitive types in UML 2.0? (Choose two)

A. specify all the necessary metaclasses
B. specify only those metaclasses needed for a particular model
C. are decomposable
D. are not decomposable
E. specify predefined data types without any relevant structure

Answer: DE

QUESTION 4
What does multiplicity in UML 2.0 signify?

A. interval of integers
B. range of allowable cardinalities
C. upper bound for the number of allowable instances
D. sequence and uniqueness of association
E. ability to multiply two or more numbers

Answer: B

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