E20-891 Question And Answer

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QUESTION NO: 1
A customer is documenting their Disaster Recovery process, and is considering all aspects of running the business. The following elements have been identified as essential:
Secondary data center location and equipment
Key responsibilities of critical business units
Up-to-date emergency contact information for all staff
In addition to these elements, which personnel should be listed as essential to be actively
engaged in the event of a disaster?
A. Mid-level management
Storage administrators
Application development programmer(s)
Network administrator(s)
B. System programmer(s)
Performance and capacity management team
Network administrator(s)
Operations analyst
C. Workload schedulers
System operator(s)
Storage administrator(s)
Disaster Recovery Manager
D. Database administrator(s)
System programmer(s)
Network administrator(s)
Disaster Recovery manager
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following considered as an element of High Availability for the System z platform?
A. GRS STAR
B. Capacity Backup (CBU)
C. Sysplex Failure Management (SPM)
D. Modified Indirect Data Address Word (MIDAW) facility
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 3
A customer’s service level agreement has the following components and configuration
characteristics:
RTO=24 hours
RPO=1 hour
Flash Copy to a single set of disks at a remote site
Tape backup once per day
What would be the state of the data if a disaster occurred during a resynchronization process?
A. There would be some data loss, but the data would need to be resynchronized.
B. There would be some data loss, but RPO and RTO would support service level agreements.
C. The data would be unreliable and their RTO and RPQ would exceed service level agreements.
D. The data would be reliable with the tape backup, and support the RTO, but the RPO would exceed service level agreements.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 4
When considering an environment with one zEnterprise server (CEO) and one instance of z/OS, which of the following contributes to High Availability?
A. Parallel sysplex
B. Application failover
C. Processor Unit Sparing
D. Multiple copies of the data
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following are typically included as a part of the services component in any of the GDPS family of products?
A. Project planning
Local field support
Installation assistance tools
Web based training programs
B. Disaster recovery planning
Development of test methodology
Network implementation services
Remote implementation assistance
C. Availability planning
Onsite education and training
Configuration recommendations
Installation and customization assistance
D. Sizing tools
TCO cost recovery tools
Workload and batch analysis tools
Capacity and performance monitoring tools
Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 1
What can pigment-based inks be used with?
A. Swellable coatings only
B. Porous coatings only
C. Both swellable and porous coatings, but swellable coatings are better
D. Both swellable and porous coatings, but porous coatings are better
Answer: B
Reference:
http://www.hp.com/hpinfo/newsroom/press_kits/2012/HPdrupa12/HP_LF_Graphics_Technical.pdf(page 6)
QUESTION NO: 2
How many front panel security levels can be setup by using the HP Embedded Webserver?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 3
What is the correct hard disk and memory capacity available on the HP DesignJet T7100?
A. 120GB Hard drive and 128GB of virtual memory
B. 160GB Hard drive and 32GB of virtual memory
C. 160GB Hard drive and 64GB of virtual memory
D. 360GB Hard drive and 16GB of virtual memory
Answer: B
Reference:
http://shopping1.hp.com/is-bin/INTERSHOP.enfinity/WFS/WW-USSMBPublicStore-
Site/en_US/-/USD/ViewProductDetail-Start?ProductUUID=z2MQ7EN53aIAAAEtoIRVIOG7&CatalogCategoryID=
QUESTION NO: 4
Which HP DesignJet Z6200 printer feature controls the advance of media, thus improving print quality even at high print speeds?
A. masking
B. spectrophotometer
C. dithering
D. OMAS
Answer: D
Reference:
http://www.jenrite.co.nz/producte4eb4047-db4c-4661-804a-50da2890431e.aspx(4th
bullet on the page)
QUESTION NO: 5
What is the target application for the Gloss Enhancer ink?
A. line drawings
B. high end photography
C. black and white photography
D. pantone matching

 

Answer: B

IIA-CIA-Part2 practice material

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following would be a red flag that indicates the possibility of inventory fraud?
I.
The controller has assumed responsibility for approving all payments to certain vendors.
II.
The controller has continuously delayed installation of a new accounts payable system, despite a corporate directive to implement it.
III.
Sales commissions are not consistent with the organization’s increased levels of sales.
IV.
Payments to certain vendors are supported by copies of receiving memos, rather than originals.
A. I and II only.
B. II and III only.
C. I, II, and IV only.
D. I, III, and IV only.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 2
During an operational audit of a chain of pizza delivery stores, an auditor determined that cold pizzas were causing customer dissatisfaction. A review of oven calibration records for the last six months revealed that adjustments were made on over 40 percent of the ovens. Based on this, the auditor:
A. Has enough evidence to conclude that improperly functioning ovens are the cause.
B. Needs to conduct further inquiries and reviews to determine the impact of the oven variations on the pizza temperature.
C. Has enough evidence to recommend the replacement of some of the ovens.
D. Must search for another cause since approximately 60 percent of the ovens did not require adjustment.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 3
When assessing the risk associated with an activity, an internal auditor should:
A. Determine how the risk should best be managed.
B. Provide assurance on the management of the risk.
C. Modify the risk management process based on risk exposures.
D. Design controls to mitigate the identified risks.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following procedures would provide the best evidence of the effectiveness of a creditgranting function?
A. Observe the process.
B. Review the trend in receivables write-offs.
C. Ask the credit manager about the effectiveness of the function.
D. Check for evidence of credit approval on a sample of customer orders.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 5
The most effective way for internal auditors to enhance the reliability of computerized financial and operating information is by:
A. Determining if controls over record keeping and reporting are adequate and effective.
B. Reviewing data provided by information systems to test compliance with external requirements.
C. Determining if information systems provide management with timely information.
D. Determining if information systems provide complete information.
Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 1
A traditional quality control process in manufacturing consists of mass inspection of goods only at the end of a production process. A major deficiency of the traditional control process is that:
A. It is expensive to do the inspections at the end of the process.
B. It is not possible to rework defective items.
C. It is not 100% effective.
D. It does not focus on improving the entire production process.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The process used to produce the goods is not thoroughly reviewed and evaluated for efficiency and effectiveness. Preventing defects and increasing efficiency by improving the production process raises quality standards and decreases costs.
QUESTION NO: 2
If a manufacturer has established a limit on the number of defects that are tolerable in the final assembly of its product, which of the following quality control procedures should be employed?
I. Inspect completed goods for compliance with established tolerances.
II. Review sales returns for defects not detected during the final inspection process.
III. Compare materials and machinery specifications with original product designs.
IV. Establish a quality circle that includes management and subordinates to discuss labor
efficiency.
A. I, III, and IV.
B. II and III only.
C. I, II, and III.
D. Ill and IV only.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Inspecting goods after completion of the production process and counting defective goods
returned by customers are product quality procedures. They measure the level of product
conformance with customer expectations. Verifying materials and machinery specifications are  process quality procedures because they emphasize the inputs to the process and the process itself.
QUESTION NO: 3
The most important component of quality control is:
A. Ensuring goods and services conform to the design specifications.
B. Satisfying upper management.
C. Conforming with ISO-9000 specifications.
D. Determining the appropriate timing of inspections.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The intent of quality control is to ensure that goods and services conform to the design
specifications. Whether the focus is on feedforward, feedback, or concurrent control, the emphasis is on ensuring product or service conformity.
QUESTION NO: 4
Management of a company is attempting to build a reputation as a world-class manufacturer of quality products. Which of the following measures would not be used by the firm to measure quality?
A. The percentage of shipments returned by customers because of poor quality.
B. The number of parts shipped per day.
C. The number of defective parts per million.
D. The percentage of products passing quality tests the firsttime
Answer: B
Explanation:
The number of parts shipped per day would most likely be used as a measure of the effectiveness and efficiency of shipping procedures, not the quality of the product. This measure does not consider how many of the parts are defective.
QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following is not an appropriate measure of quality?
A. Market share.
B. Delivery performance.
C. Customer satisfaction.
D. Raw materials costs.

 

Answer: D

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QUESTION NO: 1
The top three sales representatives for a company consistently include non-allowable charges on their expense reports. Line management is reluctant to deny reimbursement of the charges for fear of losing the sales representatives. This situation has the greatest negative impact on which of the following internal control components?
A. Monitoring.
B. Control environment.
C. Information and communication.
D. Control activities.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following factors affects the control risk of a company?
A. Potential problems like technological obsolescence.
B. Unusual pressures on management.
C. Complex accounts that require expert valuations.
D. Segregation of duties.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 3
Human resources and payroll are separate departments. Which of the following combinations would provide the best segregation of duties?
A. Human resources personnel add employees, payroll personnel process hours, and human resources personnel deliver paychecks to employees.
B. Human resources personnel add employees, review and submit payroll hours to the payroll department for processing, and deliver paychecks to employees.
C. Human resources personnel add employees, and payroll personnel process hours and enter employee bank account numbers. Paychecks are automatically deposited in the employee’s bank account.
D. Payroll personnel add employees and enter employee bank account numbers but process hours only as approved by the human resources department. Paychecks are automatically deposited in the employee’s bank account.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following is an appropriate role for the board in governance?
A. Preparing written organizational policies that relate to compliance with laws, regulations, ethics, and conflicts of interest.
B. Ensuring that financial statements are understandable, transparent, and reliable.
C. Assisting the internal audit activity in performing annual reviews of governance.
D. Working with the organization’s attorneys to develop a strategy regarding current litigation, pending litigation, or regulatory proceedings governance.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 5
According to the International Professional Practices Framework, which of the following is the appropriate division of responsibilities for the coordination of internal and external audit efforts?
I.
Oversight of Work
Coordination of Activities
Chief audit executive
Senior management
II.
Board
Chief audit executive
III.
Chief financial officer
Chief audit executive
IV.
Board
Chief financial officer
A. I
B. II.
C. III.
D. IV.
Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 1
_________Help define the role and responsibilities of auditors to internal and external entities.
Where as _______establish the basic principles and guidance to assist auditors in the
performance of their duties?
A. Technical standards, Standards
B. Standards, Defense standards
C. Audit standards, Standards
D. Standards, Open standards
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 2
Audit standards were developed and are followed for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
A. To provide uniform guidance to auditors and to establish a basis for conducting internal and external reviews of quality audits.
B. To build credibility and confidence in the auditing profession.
C. To inform customers (the public, public officials, management, stockholders, etc.) about the role ofauditing.
D. Audit staff qualifications and Quality control
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 3
All of the following groups benefit from the existence of audit standards in a variety of ways EXCEPT:
A. Elected officials and the public receive increased assurance that public funds are being
effectively used and monitored
B. Government organization
C. Management receives increased assurance that fraud or other organizational deficiencies will be detected and corrected.
D. External parties and reviewers are provided with usable measurement guidelines.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 4
Governmental auditing is distinctive and encompasses different requirements from auditing commercial or not-for-profit enterprises. The standards that apply specifically to government audits are all of the following EXCEPT:
A. International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board (IAASB).
B. International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (ISPPIA).
C. International Standards on Auditing (ISA).
D. International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI) Standards.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 5
The ____________ promulgates standards for government organizations. INTOSAI standards are a model for government audit standards, established and endorsed by the INTOSAI organization, but which must be adopted and/or modified by the _________ of any specific country in order to be used?
A. Supreme Audit Institution (SAI), International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI)
B. International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI), International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (ISPPIA)
C. International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI), Supreme Audit Institution (SAI)
D. International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (ISPPIA), Supreme Audit Institution (SAI)
Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following situation would not impair audit objectivity?
A. An auditor is assigned to audit a business function that the auditor was responsible for nine months ago
B. An individual temporarily assigned to the internal audit activity because of the individual’sexpert knowledge in a particular business function assigned to audit an activity that theindividual was responsible for just prior to transferring to the internal audit activity
C. An auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review on a system for which the auditor participated in the design process
D. An auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review on a system for which the auditor performed a procedure review and made control recommendations prior to the system’s implementation
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 2
Internal auditing:
A. Is an independent, objective assurance and consulting activity designed to add value and improve anorganization’s operations
B. Is an independent, performance measurement and consulting activity designed to addValue and improve an organization’s operations
C. Helps an organization accomplish objectives by bringing a systematic, disciplinedApproach to evaluate but rarely improve the effectiveness of risk management, control and governance
D. Helps an organization accomplish objectives by bringing a targeted, disciplined approach to evaluate but rarely improve the effectiveness of risk management, control and governance
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 3
IIA’s code of ethics applies to __________ that provide internal auditing services:
A. Individuals
B. Entities
C. Individuals and entities
D. Individuals, entities and indirect authorities
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 4
Internal auditors are expected to uphold the following principles:
A. Integrity, objectivity, competency
B. Integrity, objectivity, confidentiality, and competency
C. Integrity, objectivity, awareness and competency
D. Integrity, objectivity, entirety
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 5
“Internal auditors make a balanced assessment of all the relevant circumstances and are not unduly influenced by their own interests or by others in forming judgments.” This statement best explains one of the following principles:
A. Competency
B. Confidentiality
C. Objectivity
D. Integrity

 

Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 1
A methodology that can be used by managers and internal auditors to assess the adequacy of an organization’s risk management and control processes is called:
A. Control self-assessment
B. Control certifications
C. Managerial control
D. Risk control
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following is NOT the purpose of an organization that uses self-assessment to have a formal, documented process that allows management and work teams to participate in a structured manner?
A. Identifying risk factors and significant exposures.
B. Accessing the control processes that do not mitigate or manage those risks.
C. Developing action plans to reduce risks to acceptable levels.
D. Determining the likelihood of, or assisting in, the achievement of business objectives.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 3
The purpose of Control self-assessment is:
A. to make analysis through interviews
B. to find report issued by auditors
C. through which internal control effectiveness is examined and assessed
D. to focus on policies and procedures that are strategy compliance
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following is Correct?
A. Internal auditing is an independent, objective assurance and consulting activity designed to add value and improve an organization’s operations.
B. Take guidelines to analyst conflicts of internal auditing.
C. Required orientation and continuing education regarding audits.
D. Assets are safeguards for internal audits.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 5
Principles relevant to profession of internal auditing and rules of conduct that describe their behaviors are the components of:
A. Auditing Reviews
B. Internal Auditing Profession
C. Auditing Standards
D. Institute of Internal Auditors
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 6
Internal auditors have which following four principles to uphold and apply.
A. Integrity, Objectivity, Control and Confidentiality
B. Integrity, Objectivity, Confidentiality and Competency
C. Reliability, Objectivity, Timeliness and Competency
D. Integrity, Objectivity, Discretion and Expertise
Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which CLI command is used to restart a software process?
A. restart
B. reboot
C. commit
D. reload
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 2
Which CLI command applies the candidate configuration to the active configuration?
A. load
B. merge
C. copy run start
D. commit
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 3
Which operational CLI command would you use to troubleshoot hardware-related problems?
A. show system
B. show chassis
C. show route
D. show cli
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 4
In the Junos OS, which type of file dumps the program’s environment in the form of memory pointers, instructions, and register data to a file in the event of a panic or other serious malfunction?
A. log file
B. backup file
C. configuration file
D. core file
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 5
Which operational CLI command would you use to display information about the system and software processes?
A. show system
B. show chassis
C. show route
D. show cli

 

Answer: C