Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter NS0-154 Network Appliance cert24
Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter NS0-154 Network Appliance cert24

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NS0-154 Data ONTAP 8.0 7-Mode Administrator our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
When using SnapRestore to restore a single LUN, the LUN must be ___________.
A. exported and accessible
B. mapped to a Windows server
C. mounted on a host
D. taken offline or unmapped
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2
Which three attributes would you specify when creating a LUN? (Choose three.)
A. The path to the LUN.
B. The size of the LUN.
C. The version of Data ONTAP.
D. The host operating system of the system attached to the LUN.
Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 3
For aggregates or traditional volume SyncMirror to work correctly, the configuration of each plex
should be identical with regard to ____________.
A. NVRAM
B. Mirrored Snapshot copies
C. RAID groups and disk sizes
D. NDMP and Snapshot copies
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4
What happens when two aggregates are rejoined?
A. It is not possible to rejoin aggregates.
B. Data ONTAP will always retain data from the newest aggregate.
C. Both aggregates revert to the last common snapshot before the split.
D. You will have a large new aggregate containing all volumes from both aggregates.
E. One of the aggregates will be overwritten and you will lose any data changed on it after the
split.
Answer: E

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter NS0-154 Network Appliance cert24

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter NS0-510 Network Appliance cert24
Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter NS0-510 Network Appliance cert24

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NS0-510 NCIE – Backup and Recovery Implementation Engineer Exam our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
You are planning to install SnapManager for Microsoft SharePoint Server. On which servers should you install the SnapManager manager software and the SnapManager Agent software?

A. SnapManager Manager and Agent software must be installed on the same host.
B. SnapManager Manager and Agent software cannot be installed on the same host.
C. SnapManager Manager and Agent software must both be installed on the same host as the SharePoint Administrator software.
D. SnapManager Manager software must be installed on the same host as the SharePoint
Administrator software.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO:2
Where can you see the data not managed by a protection policy in the NetApp Management Console?

A. Data > OSSV
B. Data > Unprotect Data
C. Data > Hosts > Volumes
D. Data > External Relationships

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
What are two reasons for mounting the contents of a backup to a VMware ESX server? (Choose two.)

A. to verify the content using the vSphere Client
B. to use the vSphere Client to restore lost datastores
C. to enhance performance of the guest virtual machines
D. to convert or upgrade guest virtual machines

Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 4
Which four actions would take place during a data-protection assessment? (Choose four.)

A. determine if a proof of concept phase is needed
B. agree on the Professional Service SOW and purchase order as early as possible
C. consider only NetApp Snapshot, SnapMirror, and SnapVault technology, regardless of the existing backup solutions
D. analyze customer data protection backup and disaster recovery goals compared to NetApp data protection technology
E. gather information about the customer’s existing infrastructure
F. visit executive Briefing Center so experts can provide education to the customer, concerning NetApp offerings

Answer: A,D,E,F

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Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter OG0-9AB The Open Group cert24
Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter OG0-9AB The Open Group cert24

IT Exam,IT Certification,braindump,original questions, question pool,document, braindump, test questions, test question, dumps, test answers, cert24.com, preparation, pdf, certification questions, answers Certification, certification test, practice test, exam dumps, certification training, answers real questions

OG0-9AB TOGAF 8 – 9 Advanced Bridge our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
According to TOGAF, which of the following are the architecture domains that are commonly accepted subsets of an overall enterprise architecture?

A. Application, Business, Data, Technology
B. Capability, Segment, Strategic
C. Context, Definition, Governance, Transformation
D. Definition, Realization, Transition, Vision

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
In TOGAF, what is the difference between an artifact and a deliverable?

A. An artifact will contain one or more deliverables
B. Artifacts and deliverables are synonymous; there is no difference between them
C. Deliverables are prepared by the Project Manager, whereas artifacts are defined by the
Architect
D. Deliverables are reusable, whereas artifacts are unique to a given architecture project
E. Deliverables are specified as contractual outputs from a project, whereas artifacts are not

Answer: E

QUESTION NO: 3
Which one of the following describes the main components within the TOGAF Architecture
Repository?

A. Organizational Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, Best Practices, ReferenceLibrary, Compliance Strategy
B. Architecture Metamodel, Organizational Capability Model, Application Landscape, SIB,
Reference Library,Governance Model
C. Business Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference
Library,Governance Log
D. Architecture Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,Governance Log
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4
If a technique is referenced by processes categorized as TOGAF Core and TOGAF Mandated in the Document Categorization Model, then in which category should it be placed?

A. TOGAF Extension
B. TOGAF Guidelines and Techniques
C. TOGAF Recommended
D. TOGAF Supporting

Answer: C

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Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter OG0-093 The Open Group cert24
Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter OG0-093 The Open Group cert24

IT Exam,IT Certification,braindump,original questions, question pool,document, braindump, test questions, test question, dumps, test answers, cert24.com, preparation, pdf, certification questions, answers Certification, certification test, practice test, exam dumps, certification training, answers real questions

OG0-093 TOGAF 9 Combined Part 1 and Part 2 our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
Complete the sentence. The practice by which the enterprise architecture is managed and
controlled at an enterprise level is known as____________.
A. Architecture governance
B. Corporate governance
C. IT governance
D. Portfolio management
E. Technology governance

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following best describes the TOGAF classification in Phase H for a re-architecting change?
A. A change driven by a requirement to derive additional value from the existing investment
B. A change driven by a requirement to increase investment in order to create new value for exploitation
C. A change driven by a requirement to reduce costs
D. A change driven by a requirement to reduce investment
E. A change driven by a requirement to re-align with the business strategy

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Business Transformation Readiness Assessment technique?
A. To determine if the organization is ready to undergo change
B. To determine if the stakeholders support the implementation plan
C. To ensure that there are adequate trained engineers to develop the solution
D. To ensure that there is sufficient funding to execute the transformation
E. To plan the migration steps needed to achieve the transformation

Answer: A

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Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter OMG-OCUP-100 OMG cert24
Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter OMG-OCUP-100 OMG cert24

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OMG-OCUP-100 OMG-Certified UML Professional Fundamental Exam our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
What is true about a data type? (Choose two)

A. Its instances are data values.
B. Its instances are mutable objects.
C. Its instances are identified by GUIDs.
D. It is a classifier that must not be abstract.
E. It is the only kind of type that can be returned by an operation.
F. It can be diagrammed as a rectangle with the keyword dataType

Answer: A, F

Question: 2
What are the primary purposes of packages in UML 2.0? (Choose two)

A. to group classes
B. to provide a namespace
C. to group features for a class
D. to group modeling elements
E. to avoid the constraints of a namespace

Answer: B, D

Question: 3
What are true statements about dependencies? (Choose two)

A. Dependency relationships are intransitive.
B. Dependency relationships have runtime semantics implications.
C. Dependency relationships do not have runtime semantics implications.
D. A dependency implies the semantics of the client(s) are complete without the
supplier(s).
E. A dependency implies the semantics of the client(s) are incomplete without the
supplier(s).

Answer: C, E

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Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter P_ADM_SEC_70 SAP cert24
Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter P_ADM_SEC_70 SAP cert24

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P_ADM_SEC_70 SAP Certified Technology Professional – Security with SAP NetWeaver 7.0 our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
Where should the synchronization of user data between an AS ABAP based system and a
directory server be started?

A. The synchronization should be started from the directory server regardless of the direction of the synchronization.
B. The location from which the synchronization is started can be customized using transaction LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol).
C. The synchronization should be started from the SAP system, regardless of the direction of the synchronization.
D. The location from which the synchronization is started can be maintained using the profile parameter ldap/sync_start.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2
When using CUA (Central User Administration), which option should be assigned to all system users?
A. Dialog
B. Communication (CPIC in older releases)
C. System
D. Service
E. Reference

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following statements regarding the Central User Administration (CUA) is true?

A. CUA is not used to centrally administer initial passwords for SAP users.
B. Users of the child systems must not exist in the central system.
C. Initial passwords are distributed non-coded.
D. The global lock can only be canceled in the central system.

Answer: B

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Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter PK0-003 CompTIA cert24
Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter PK0-003 CompTIA cert24

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PK0-003 Project+ (2009) our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION 1
A project manager is responsible for meeting with the companys project review board to periodically evaluate the progress on a project. Which of the following is the role of the board?

A. To supply audit trail oversight
B. To ensure local standards compliance
C. To provide decision oversight
D. To communicate to stakeholders

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following are components of an internal / external communication plan? (Select TWO).

A. Technology requirements
B. Communication budget
C. Distribution list
D. Stakeholders list
E. Communication frequency

Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
A project manager creates a detailed list of costs for each activity involved in the project and then uses the sum of the individual activities to create the budget. Which of the following cost estimating techniques was used?

A. Bottom-up
B. Expert judgment
C. Parametric
D. Top-down

Answer: A

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Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter PMI-001 PMI cert24
Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter PMI-001 PMI cert24

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PMI-001 Project Management Professional our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
Define Activities is typically performed by which of the following:

A. Project Manager who created the WBS
B. Management
C. Project Team Members responsible for the work package
D. Project Stakeholder

Answer: C

Explanation:
Define Activities is typically performed by Project Team Members. identify the activities that need to be done to complete the project.

QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following is closest to Juran’s definition of Quality:

A. conformance to requirements.
B. fitness for use.
C. customer focus.
D. continuous improvement.
E. All of the other alternatives apply.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following MUST NOT performed in project initiation process?

A. identify the requirements.
B. identify business need.
C. create project scope statement.
D. create project charter.

Answer: C

Explanation:
project scope statement created during project planning phase.

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Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter PRINCE2 PRINCE2 cert24
Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter PRINCE2 PRINCE2 cert24

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PRINCE2 PRINCE2 Foundation our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is not an objective of the process Initiating a Project?
A. It encourages the Project Board to take ownership of the project
B. It provides the benchmark for decision-making processes throughout the projects life
C. It confirms the existence of an acceptable Business Case justifying the project
D. It ensures that all project management authorities are appointed
Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT an objective of the process Controlling a Stage?
A. Ensure that quality is achieved as planned
B. Manage any deviations from Stage or Project Plans
C. Identifying the key products that the project will deliver
D. Manage on-time delivery of products within agreed tolerances
Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Whose responsibility is it to supply the Customer’s quality expectations?
A. Project Manager
B. Senior User
C. Executive
D. Senior Supplier
Answer: B

QUESTION 4
The Project Board keeps a control of the project through:
1. Highlight Reports

2. Checkpoint Reports
3. Exception assessment
4. Quality Log
A. 1, 3 and 4 only
B. All of the above
C. land 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is a stable element within the Project Initiation Document?
A. Business Case
B. Project Plan
C. Project tolerance
D. Risk Log
Answer: C

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Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter SK0-003 CompTIA cert24
Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter SK0-003 CompTIA cert24

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SK0-003 CompTIA Server+Certification Exam our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following BEST describes RAID 10?

A. Mirroring with striping
B. Mirroring with fault tolerance
C. Striping
D. Striping with distributed parity

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following BEST describes RAID 1?

A. Mirroring
B. Striping
C. Striping with parity
D. Striping with mirroring

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following BEST describes RAID 0?

A. Striping with parity
B. Striping with mirroring
C. Mirroring
D. Striping

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following BEST describes the difference between RAID 5 and RAID 6?

A. RAID 5 uses a dedicated parity drive and RAID 6 does not.
B. RAID 6 uses a dedicated parity drive and RAID 5 does not.
C. RAID 6 uses more parity drives than RAID 5.
D. RAID 5 uses more parity drives than RAID 6.

Answer: C

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter SK0-003 CompTIA cert24