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Exam Number/Code : CTFL-UK

Exam Name:ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1
The introduction of reviews and inspections has often failed as a process improvement action.
Identify the THREE most important measures that should be taken to reduce the risk that this test process improvement will fail. 2 Credits (for 2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)

A. Process ownership and experienced moderators who drive the inspection process.
B. Management support
C. Training of those involved
D. The availability of stands and processes
E. Usage of a more traditional software development lifecycle
F. Alignment with software process improvement
G. Using a reference model, e.g. TMMi

Answer: A,B,C

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QUESTION NO: 2
IEEE 1028 also defines “management review” as a type of review. What is the main purpose of a management review? 1 credit

A. Align technical concepts during the design phase
B. Establish a common understanding of requirements
C. Provide independent evaluation of compliance to processes, regulations, standards etc.
D. To monitor progress, assess the status of a project, and make decisions about future actions

Answer: D

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IT Certifications Test 100% Pass Guaranteed CX-310-052 www.cert24.com

CX-310-052 CX-310-052 CX-310-052 www.cert24.com

Exam Number/Code : CX-310-052

Exam Name:Java Enterprise Edition 5 Enterprise Architect Certified Master Exam (Step 1 of 3)

Version : Demo

1.What are the three primary roles in a web service interaction? (Choose three.)
A.Broker
B.Facade
C.Provider
D.Decorator
E.Requestor
F.Interceptor
Answer:A C E

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2.A stock trading company is writing a new application for stock market forecasting. A significant portion of the work required by the business logic involves navigating through the persistent object model. As lead architect on this project, you have chosen JPA over EJB2 entity beans to implement these persistent objects. You have done this to maximize performance when
navigating through the model. Why does JPA offer better performance for this task?
A.JPA guarantees referential integrity at the object level.
B.JPA allows the application to specify lazy or eager retrievals.
C.JPA simplifies the source code that implements the object model.
D.The guaranteed referential integrity in EJB2 entity beans is expensive.
Answer:B

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E22-275 E22-275 E22-275 www.cert24.com

E22-275 E22-275 E22-275 www.cert24.com

Exam Number/Code : E22-275

Exam Name:recoverpoint backup and recovery specialist exam

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1
A customer is thinking about purchasing RecoverPoint. During their research, they learn that RecoverPoint uses a data reduction technique called a “signature.”
How does the signature feature work?

A. It compresses all the production data into snapshots using high-yield compression algorithms.
B. If there are multiple writes to the same location, it sends only the last write within the snapshot granularity window.
C. It provides recommendations for consistency group distribution between the RPAs and initiates Semi-Automated Load Balancing.
D. It reads multiple replication blocks at a time and replicates only the changed data over the network.

Answer: D

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QUESTION NO: 2
A customer was testing various operations on the target side of a consistency group (CG) in their CDP environment. What operation can they perform without triggering a volume or full sweep on the CG?

A. Accessing the replica in virtual mode
B. Removing and adding back a replica to the CG
C. Accessing the replica in direct access mode
D. Removing a journal volume on the CG in the target site

Answer: A

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latest microsoft Test data EADA10 EADA10 EADA10 www.cert24.com

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Exam Number/Code : EADA10

Exam Name: ArcGIS Desktop Associate

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1
A feature class in Coordinate System A is added to a data frame in ArcMap that is using
Coordinate System B. The features are displayed accurately on the map.
How is ArcMap able to display the features accurately?

A. ArcMap temporarily reassigns the coordinate system of the feature class to Coordinate System B
B. ArcMap permanently reassigns the coordinate system of the feature class to Coordinate System B
C. ArcMap protects the features into Coordinate System B on-the-fly
D. ArcMap redirects the user to project the data into Coordinate System B before it can be added to the map

Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 2
An ArcGIS user is displaying a parcel feature class under a building feature class. The user wants to ensure that the exact outline of all features is visible.
What must the ArcGIS user do to allow both feature classes to be viewed at the same time?

A. spatially join features
B. set transparency on buildings
C. join buildings to parcels
D. relate buildings to parcels
E. change display order of features

Answer: B

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I10-001 I10-001 I10-001 www.cert24.com

I10-001 I10-001 I10-001 www.cert24.com

Exam Number/Code : I10-001

Exam Name: XML Master Basic V2

Version : Demo

QUESTION: 1
Press the Exhibit button to view “XML Schema Document”. Select which of the following
correctly describes a valid XML document with respect to “XML Schema Document”.

A.
Taro Yamada
[email protected]

B.

C.
Taro Yamada
[email protected]

D.

Answer: A, B

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QUESTION: 2
Press the Exhibit button to view “XML Document”. Select which of the following correctly
describes the results of applying “XSLT Stylesheet” to “XML Document”. Assume that the
input XML document and transformation results ignore meaningless whitespace.

A. A file that does not contain any content will be output, because the XML document LIST
element does not contain a name attribute.
B. The following XML document will be output.

PenPaper C. The following XML document will be output.

Pen
Paper
D. The following XML document will be output.

Pen
Paper
PenPaper
Answer: B

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latest IT Review materials EX0-101 EX0-101 EX0-101 www.cert24.com

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Exam Number/Code : EX0-101

Exam Name :ITIL Foundation v.3

Version : Demo

1. Which of the following do Service Metrics measure?
A. Processes and functions
B. Maturity and cost
C. The end to end service
D. Infrastructure availability

Answer: C

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2. Which of the following BEST describes a Service Request?
A. A request from a User for information, advice or for a Standard Change
B. Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for
C. Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a Self-Help web-based interface
D. Any Request for Change (RFC) that is low risk and can be approved by the Change Manager without a Change Advisory Board (CAB) meeting

Answer: A

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3. Which of the following does the Availability Management process include?
1 Ensuring services are able to meet availability targets
2 Monitoring and reporting actual availability
3 Improvement activities, to ensure that services continue to meet or exceed their availability goals
A. 2 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only

Answer: B

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EX0-104 EX0-104 EX0-104 www.cert24.com

EX0-104 EX0-104 EX0-104 www.cert24.com

Exam Number/Code : EX0-104

Exam Name :TMap Next Foundation

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1
See the definition below:
Tests in which the supplying party demonstrates that the product particularly meets the functional and non-functional specifications and the technical design, among other things.
Of which test level is this the definition?
A. acceptance test
B. development test
C. system test

Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 2
In which Map phase activity does the pre-test take place?
A. Defining central starting points
B. Intake of the test object
C. Specifying the test object intake
D. Executing (re)tests

Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 3
Which defect has an internal cause that can be solved within the test team?
A. a defect in the test basis
B. a defect in the test specification
C. a defect in the test object

Answer: B

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latest IT exam data EX0-105 EX0-105 EX0-105 www.cert24.com

EX0-105 EX0-105 EX0-105 www.cert24.com

Exam Number/Code : EX0-105

Exam Name :Information Security Foundation based o ISO/IEC 27002

Version : Demo

QUESTION 1
You are the owner of the courier company SpeeDelivery. You employ a few people who, while waiting to make a delivery, can carry out other tasks. You notice, however, that they use this time to send and read their private mail and surf the Internet. In legal terms, in which way can the use of the Internet and e-mail facilities be best regulated?

A. Installing an application that makes certain websites no longer accessible and that filters attachments in e-mails
B. Drafting a code of conduct for the use of the Internet and e-mail in which the rights and obligations of both the employer and staff are set down
C. Implementing privacy regulations
D. Installing a virus scanner

Answer: B

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QUESTION 2
Why is air-conditioning placed in the server room?

A. In the server room the air has to be cooled and the heat produced by the equipment has to be extracted. The air in the room is also dehumidified and filtered.
B. When a company wishes to cool its offices, the server room is the best place. This way, no office space needs to be sacrificed for such a large piece of equipment.
C. It is not pleasant for the maintenance staff to have to work in a server room that is too warm.
D. Backup tapes are made from thin plastic which cannot withstand high temperatures.
Therefore, if it gets too hot in a server room, they may get damaged.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 3
Who is authorized to change the classification of a document?

A. The author of the document
B. The administrator of the document
C. The owner of the document
D. The manager of the owner of the document

Answer: C

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FCNSA FCNSA FCNSA www.cert24.com

FCNSA FCNSA FCNSA www.cert24.com

Exam Number/Code : FCNSA

Exam Name :fortine certified network security administrator

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following are valid authentication user group types on a FortiGate unit? (Select all
that apply.)
A. Firewall
B. Directory Service
C. Local
D. LDAP
E. PKI

Answer: A,B,C,E
Explanation:
Page 43 of http://docs.fortinet.com/fgt/handbook/40mr2/fortigate-authentication-40-mr2.pdf

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QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following statements regarding Banned Words are correct? (Select all that apply.)
A. The FortiGate unit can scan web pages and email messages for instances of banned words.
B. When creating a banned word list, an administrator can indicate either specific words or
patterns.
C. Banned words can be expressed as wildcards or regular expressions.
D. Content is automatically blocked if a single instance of a banned word appears.
E. The FortiGate unit includes a pre-defined library of common banned words.

Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 3
CORRECT TEXT
When creating administrative users, the assigned____________________ determines user rights
on the FortiGate unit.
A. access profile

Answer: A
Explanation:

http://docs.google.com/viewer?a=v&q=cache:avlu2Gqf9qIJ:docs.fortinet.com/fgt/handbook/40mr3/

fortigatecompliance-40-mr3.pdf+When+creating+administrative+users,+the+assigned+access+profile+determines
+user+rights+on+the+FortiGate
+unit&hl=en&gl=in&pid=bl&srcid=ADGEESgzqoPFOBdM9MpF0T_MOTAa2iAy7fVLPgvTWlD1IsV
czJt98supdd
W_9qMLxyBsnvU0ijR1dPFSfbQM08eEB00SlxAph3laJ3umkC52FvxEoVWk2hWj3UZbnJWYUKEa
u3_
XCmp&sig=AHIEtbT4PD_bWjKNqs1FfExl-40Yf4nANg

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professional test data FCNSP FCNSP FCNSP www.cert24.com

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Exam Number/Code : FCNSP

Exam Name :FortiOS 4.0 GA, FortiAnalyzer 4.0 GA(FCNSP v4.0)

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1
A portion of the device feting for a Forti Analyzer unit is displayed in the exhibit.

Which of the following statements best describes the reason why the FortiGate 60B unit is unable to archive data to the Fortianalyzer unit?
A. the FortiGate unit is considered an unregistered device.
B. the Forti gate unit has been blocked from sending archive data to the Fortianalyzer device by the administrator.
C. the Fortigate unit has insufficient privileges. The administrator should edit the device entry in the fortianalyzer and modify the privileges.
D. the Fortigate unit is being treated as a syslog device and is only permitted to send log data.

Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following describes the difference between the ban and quarantine actions?
A. A ban action prevents future transactions using the same protocol which triggered the ban. A qarantine action blocks all future transactions, regardless of the protocol.
B. A ban action blocks the transaction. A quarantine action archives the data.
C. A ban action has a finite duration. A quarantine action must be removed by an administrator,
D. A ban action is used for known users. A quarantine action is used for unknown users.

Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following is an advantage of using SNMP v3 Instead of SNMP v1/v2 when querying the FortiGate unit?
A. Packet encryption
B. MIB-based report uploads
C. SNMP access limits through access lists
D. Running SNMP service on a non-standard port is possible

Answer: A

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