M2020-623 Testing Engine

M2020-623 Testing Engine

  • Code:M2020-623
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    Which of the following would assist in qualifying a prospect for the Portfolio Construction and Risk Management Managed edition?
    A. Are you interested in an in-house installed risk system?
    B. Do you want to reduce your investment in risk management infrastructure?
    C. Do you want to manage data and model configuration in-house?
    D. Do you need to keep your data in-house?
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 2
    Which of the following is a common element of all three (3) editions of the IBM Algorithmics Portfolio Construction & Risk Management Solution for Asset Managers solution?
    A. Sets of preconfigured risk reports
    B. A web-based interface
    C. Advancedrisk analytics
    D. Interactive ad hoc risk analysis
    Answer: C
    Reference:
    http://public.dhe.ibm.com/common/ssi/ecm/en/yts03066usen/YTS03066USEN.PDF(pa
    ge 2, second para)
    QUESTION NO: 3
    Regulators are focusing on which of the following for compliance requirements?
    A. Target client base
    B. Headquarters geographic location
    C. Know your client criteria
    D. Risk Exposure and Analytics
    Answer: D
    QUESTION NO: 4
    Which one of the following will the Chief Operating Officer (COO) care about?
    A. Performance
    B. Meeting regulatory compliance
    C. Understanding and managing risks
    D. Decision support
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 5
    Which of the following are Asset Owners and Managers doing to reduce the risk in their portfolios?
    A. Increasing diversification
    B. Increasing local Investment
    C. Increasing investment in alternative instruments
    D. Limiting investment to government issued securities
    Answer: C
    Reference:http://www-01.ibm.com/common/ssi/rep_ca/0/897/ENUS213-530/ENUS213-
    530.PDF(page 7)

M2040-723 Exam Training Materials

M2040-723 Exam Training Materials

  • Code:M2040-723
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    Which of the choices below is a recognized need for a Learning Content Management System (LCMS)?
    A. Multi-interface access to learning content
    B. Siloed training function acknowledged as ineffective
    C. The desire to implement a social learning platform
    D. Need for access to subject matter experts
    Answer: D
    Reference:
    http://www.kenexa.com/Solutions/Learning/LearningContentManagementSystems(Fost
    er collaboration and knowledge-sharing)
    QUESTION NO: 2
    What is a typical deal size of a Hot Lava Mobile solution?
    A. $130K
    B. $100K
    C. $60K
    D. $30K
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 3
    What percent of employees think their pay is tied to performance?
    A. 10%
    B. 25%
    C. 50%
    D. 80%
    Answer: D
    Reference:
    http://www.kenexa.com/Portals/0/Downloads/KHPI%20Papers/Perception-Is-
    Reality_WorkTrendsReport.pdf
    QUESTION NO: 4
    How can Kenexa’s Performance Management solutions improve the way organizations are managing their performance solutions today?
    A. Provide access to standard appraisals
    B. Built in standard goal setting
    C. Functionality that allows a manager to determine pay increases based on performance
    D. Provide a suite of capabilities along with deep competency knowledge
    Answer: D
    QUESTION NO: 5
    What is a key opportunity accelerator or indicator for a Learning Management Solution?
    A. An increase in the volume of employees, customers & partners to train
    B. A large number of customer facing job families
    C. A high level of employee absenteeism
    D. A desire to comment on leaning tools within the organization
    Answer: A

M2040-724 Exam Training Materials

M2040-724 Exam Training Materials

  • Code:M2040-724
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    CORRECT TEXT
    If you were to modify a ready to use assessment by changing the situational judgment questions and modifying the simulations but keep the core traits the assessment was designed to measure, which one of the following assessments would you use?
    A. Custom Assessments
    B. Ready-to-use Assessments
    C. Skills Assessments
    D. Calibrated Assessments
    Answer: B
    Reference:http://www.kenexa.com/Solutions/Assessments
    QUESTION NO: 2
    What is a Typical selling cycle for Kenexa’s CompAnalyst Product?
    A. 2 Years
    B. 2 Weeks
    C. 2 Months
    D. 41/2 Months
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 3
    What is the number one differentiator Kenexa’s Survey Solution offers to the marketplace?
    A. Multi-Language / Multi-Media / High Volume Capacity
    B. Client Centric flexible and experienced consulting approach to solutions
    C. Speed of Analysis and Reporting (Real-Time Dashboards)
    D. Proven Results Drive Business Performance
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 4
    Which component of Kenexa’s Survey Management tool helps organizations understand the infrastructure of the HRIS data feeds?
    A. Focused Listening Questions
    B. Survey Admin
    C. Reporting Solutions
    D. Organization Mapper
    Answer: D
    QUESTION NO: 5
    When selling assessments, what is one of the most important things to understand about the organization to help accelerate an opportunity?
    A. The number of people who left the organization
    B. The priorities of each of the lines of business
    C. Understanding of the company’s job families
    D. What business they are in
    Answer: C

M2040-725 Practice Exam PDF

M2040-725 Practice Exam PDF

  • Code:M2040-725
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    According to the audio recording, what key trend influences why organizations choose both an Applicant Tracking System and an Onboarding system?
    A. Retiring home-grown systems
    B. HR Transformation
    C. Sourcing -proactive pipelining of candidates for critical job families
    D. Moving away from HRIS onboarding solution
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 2
    Which of the following is an important market differentiator of Kenexa’s Applicant Tracking
    System?
    A. Applicant Ranking
    B. OFCCP Compliance and EEO-1 reporting
    C. Integrated social sourcing
    D. Integrated job description database
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 3
    According to the audio recording, which of the following client business challenges might signal a recruiting opportunity?
    A. Integrating new employees from a recent acquisition
    B. Developing a compensation strategy to attract the right talent
    C. The need to rapidly onboard new employees
    D. Poor employee retention rates
    Answer: D
    QUESTION NO: 4
    What is the typical implementation time for a 2x BrassRing System?
    A. 8 weeks-12 months
    B. 1 month -6 months
    C. 2 weeks -3 months
    D. 6 months -1 year
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 5
    According to the audio recording, which of the following Kenexa 2x Onboard features offers easily quantifiable cost savings for US based customers?
    A. 30-60-90 day check ins
    B. Electronic Signature support
    C. Zero transactions costs for 1-9 processing
    D. Support for 20 languages
    Answer: A
    Reference:http://www.kenexa.com/Portals/0/Downloads/Products/GTM–
    2xOnboard_Email.pdf(page 2)

M2150-709 Practice Exam PDF

M2150-709 Practice Exam PDF

  • Code:M2150-709
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    The IBM Endpoint Manager solution consists of a centrally deployed server and agents deployed on the customer endpoints. Which of the following best describes the agent platform support?
    A. Single platform support
    B. Multi-platform support
    C. Windows only
    D. MAC only
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 2
    IBM introduced the Access Manager for Mobile appliance in October 2013. Which of the following is not provided by Access Manager for Mobile?
    A. Mobile access management.
    B. Federated SSO for software as a service (SaaS) targets such as SalesForce.
    C. Mobile identity assurance.
    D. Help in securing mobile application deployment.
    Answer: D
    Reference:http://www-03.ibm.com/software/products/en/access-mgr-mobile/
    QUESTION NO: 3
    With Federated Identity Manager, which of the following customer scenarios are able to be
    addressed?
    A. The provisioning of identities to more than one domain or company.
    B. Strict management of privileged users’ identities to absolutely ensure there is no unauthorized sharing of their identities.
    C. Cross-domain single sign-on, whether the requester is an external user or an internal
    employee.
    D. Strong authentication requirements for any configuration.
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 4
    In addition to vulnerability research and malware analysis, IBM Security X-Force Research and Development performs which of the following tasks?
    A. Prosecution of cybercriminals
    B. Content analysis of web pages and images
    C. Development of exploit kits for sale on the black market
    D. Development of anti-virus updates for Trend Micro
    Answer: B
    Reference:
    http://www.ncc.co.uk/download.php?4778366e714c5670554d737030676d692b735743
    427555326d6d536265526d67587853664232336c46515538654a634259315538683534337a35524f2f48425946513051524e706457656134527757534e2f46573955666d702f614849616e4f5356535a384e564c47322b714a66326670315262
    QUESTION NO: 5
    In a potential Access Manager for Web sale, the client is a large customer and has large numbers of applications and servers involved in their SSO/Web authorization plans. Oracle Access Manager (OAM) is the main competitor. What might you emphasize as you try to move the customer in your direction?
    A. Access Manager for Web scales well, and is much easier to manage, given a relatively small number of Access Manager for Web servers involved, versus many OAM plug-ins to manage And the appliance version of Access Manager for Web provides faster time to value (TTV).
    B. Access Manager scales well and can do software distribution to any and all clients involved in the scope of the SSO engagement.
    C. Access Manager both scales well and performs well.
    D. Access Manager is on a par with OAM from a scalability point of view, but it has a wider
    number of applications that it supports out of the box.
    Answer: A

C_TPLM30_66 P_HCMTM_64 question and answer

C_TPLM30_66 P_HCMTM_64 question and answer

  • Code:C_TPLM30_66 P_HCMTM_64
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  • Exam Demo:
  • P_HCMTM_64
    QUESTION NO: 1
    HR wants to monitor the maintenance of Personal Development (PD) master data.
    Which methods are available to audit this? (Choose two)
    A. Program RPUAUD00 for logged changes to standard infotypes 0001-0999.
    B. Log of report starts accessing logical database PCH.
    C. Log of report starts accessing logical database PNP.
    D. Transaction PPOME for organization structure changes.
    E. Program RHDOC_DISPLAY for logged changes to standard infotypes 1000-1999.
    Answer: D,E
    QUESTION NO: 2
    Which areas are used by HCM Processes and Forms? (Choose two)
    A. SAP Employee Interaction Center (EIC)
    B. SAP Interactive Forms
    C. SAP Business Workflow
    D. SAP Network Process Integration (PI)
    Answer: B,C
    QUESTION NO: 3
    An organization has the need to reduce their headcount. Therefore they need to identify jobs and positions that have to be retained based on critical business processes.
    How can you determine what jobs and positions are critical?
    A. Execute Complete Job Description (S_AHR_61016501) from Organizational Management Info System.
    B. Execute Infotype Reporting (S_AHR_61016532) from Organizational Management Info System using Spec. Position Characteristics (infotype 1958).
    C. Execute Profile Matchup (PEPM) from Personnel Development Info System.
    D. Execute Complete Position Description (S_AHR_61016511) from Organizational Management Info System.
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 4
    After having set up structural authorizations, your customer is experiencing slow system response times.
    How can you improve system response times?
    A. Delete all entries of structural authorization indexes and recreate each structural authorization profile.
    B. Generate indexes for users assigned to these structural authorizations using RHBAUS00.
    C. Increase database storage capacity to better process the complex indexing associated with building and maintaining structural authorizations.
    D. Reduce the number of structural authorization profiles to allow fewer users access to the structural authorization objects.
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 5
    Your customer needs a ‘Special Exempt’ indicator on ‘Job Attributes’ (Infotype 1610).
    What do you recommend?
    A. Change the data dictionary definition of a standard text field.
    B. Change the field attribute on Dialog Database Assignment Table (T777D).
    C. Configure the Screen Modification Table (T588M) and set the field as a radio button.
    D. Customize the Infotype to add a radio button for the additional field.
    Answer: D
    C_TPLM30_66
    QUESTION NO: 1
    Which of the following are prerequisites for business completion? (Choose two)
    A. The order must have actual costs.
    B. The order must be fully settled.
    C. The balance of the order must be zero.
    D. The order must have planned costs.
    Answer: B,C
    QUESTION NO: 2
    What information does the value category provide in the maintenance order?
    A. The costs details for individual technical objects
    B. The costs by work center
    C. The material costs by valuation category
    D. A summary of costs for multiple cost elements
    Answer: D
    QUESTION NO: 3
    Which of the following Customizing settings is required to assign a notification to a maintenance order operation?
    A. Assignment of operations to all object list entries active
    B. Assignment of order type to notification type
    C. Maintain indicator for notification data on order header
    D. Create default value profiles for general order data
    Answer: A
    QUESTION NO: 4
    When the user creates a maintenance plan for a call object (order), which value in the planning data determines the order type?
    A. Priority
    B. Maintenance activity type
    C. Maintenance planner group
    D. Main work center
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 5
    A maintenance technician replaces a defective counter with a new counter.
    Before the users can create a standard measuring document for the new counter, what step(s) must they perform?
    A. Create a new technical object to represent the new measuring point.
    B. Create a special measuring document and set the Counter Replacement indicator.
    C. Dismantle the old measuring point and create a new measuring point.
    D. Create a new measuring point and change the measuring point from which the measurement reading was transferred.
    Answer: B

C_TSCM42_65 C_TSCM42_66 question and answer

C_TSCM42_65 C_TSCM42_66 question and answer

  • Code:C_TSCM42_65C_TSCM42_66
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  • Exam Demo:
  • C_TSCM42_66
    QUESTION NO: 1
    You want to use the function “Read PP master data” in the production order.
    However, while calling the function you receive an error message.
    What could be the reason?
    A. The material availability check has been performed.
    B. Goods movements have been posted.
    C. The production order has been released.
    D. Order papers have been printed.
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 2
    Which objects can affect the calculation of capacity requirements for an operation? (Choose three)
    A. Standard values (routing)
    B. In-house production time (material master)
    C. Transport time (routing)
    D. Formulas (work center)
    E. Operation control key (routing)
    Answer: A,D,E
    QUESTION NO: 3
    In the Customizing for requirements planning, a project team notices that the alternatives P1, P2, P3 and P4 are also delivered as standard in addition to MRP type PD. The number in each of these alternatives represents a firming type.
    What does a firming type define? (Choose two)
    A. Handling existing procurement proposals outside the planning time fence.
    B. Handling existing procurement proposals within a planning time fence.
    C. Handling new requirements within the planning time fence.
    D. Handling new procurement proposals that need to be created due to new requirements within the planning time fence.
    Answer: B,D
    QUESTION NO: 4
    Which of the following scheduling types can only be used in capacity planning?
    A. Midpoint
    B. Forward
    C. Only capacity requirements
    D. Backward
    Answer: A
    QUESTION NO: 5
    Which types of objects can be changed with Engineering Change Management (ECM)? (Choose three)
    A. Task list
    B. Work center
    C. Production version
    D. Bill of material
    E. Material master
    Answer: A,D,E
    C_TSCM42_65
    QUESTION NO: 1
    What features related to process orders can be used to fulfill Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) requirements? (Choose three)
    A. Availability check
    B. Digital signature
    C. Resource selection
    D. Electronic batch record
    E. Approved master recipes
    Answer: B,D,E
    QUESTION NO: 2
    Which of the following statements about consumption are correct? (Choose two)
    A. Consumption takes place on the material level between the planned independent requirements and the planned orders.
    B. Consumption parameters (consumption mode and consumption interval) can be set in the material master or in the MRP group.
    C. Consumption is restructured with the planning run.
    D. Consumption can take place between order reservations and planned independent
    requirements, depending on the strategy.
    Answer: B,D
    QUESTION NO: 3
    Where can you define the valid receivers for production order costs?
    A. In the valuation variant
    B. In the production scheduling profile
    C. In the settlement profile
    D. In the costing variant
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 4
    When analyzing the SAP ECC order report for a planned order for a finished product, you discover that one of the assemblies will not be available in time for the scheduled final assembly because of automatic forward scheduling.
    Which planning procedure do you use to create a feasible production plan from a requirements planning perspective?
    A. Interactive single-item planning for the delayed assembly
    B. Multi-level single-item planning with the “simulation mode” option
    C. Total planning online
    D. Multi-level single-item planning with the “display material list” option
    Answer: B

C_TBIT44_731 C_FSUTIL_60 exam study guide

C_TBIT44_731 C_FSUTIL_60 exam study guide

  • Code:C_TBIT44_731 C_FSUTIL_60
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  • Exam Demo:
  • C_FSUTIL_60.
    QUESTION NO: 1
    A customer moves in to a premise and requests electricity service starting on June 7. According to the schedule records, the scheduled meter reading date is June 29, the scheduled billing date is July 1, and the allocation date for billing is June 30.
    Given that batch billing is executed every night with all portions included, what is the first day the customer’s contract could be billed?
    A. July 1
    B. June 30
    C. June 7
    D. June 29
    Answer: A
    QUESTION NO: 2
    On May 15, you try to process dunning for an account with an issue date of May 10.
    Why does dunning fail to produce a result?
    A. A dunning block which expired on May 13 was set on the contract account.
    B. A dunning block which expired on May 13 was set on the business partner.
    C. A dunning block which began on May 13 was set on the business partner.
    D. A dunning block which began on May 13 was set on the contract account.
    Answer: A
    QUESTION NO: 3
    Which object can be used in monitoring (EL31) to view meter reading results?
    A. Contract
    B. Device location
    C. Connection object
    D. Contract account
    Answer: A
    QUESTION NO: 4
    Which criteria are used to group the underlying FICA documents for transfer to General Ledger Accounting? (Choose three)
    A. Creation date
    B. Currency
    C. Transaction
    D. Segment
    E. Company code
    Answer: B,D,E
    QUESTION NO: 5
    Which processes can be directly called within the account display transaction? (Choose three)
    A. Change contract
    B. Display returns history
    C. Mass change
    D. Create budget billing plan
    E. Display installation
    Answer: A,B,C
    C_TBIT44_731
    QUESTION NO: 1
    In which cases do you need to use ccBPM processes? (Choose two)
    A. When collecting messages
    B. When querying databases
    C. When using a synchronous/asynchronous bridge
    D. When using scenarios that are based on an AEX installation
    Answer: A,C
    QUESTION NO: 2
    Which Web-services-related protocol is supported by SAP NetWeaver PI 7.31?
    A. Web Services Description Language (WSDL)
    B. WS-Reliable Messaging (WS-RM)
    C. Representational state transfer (REST)
    D. Open Data Protocol (OData)
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 3
    What is the purpose of the standard SplitByValue function?
    A. To split the payload
    B. To replicate a value of a field that occurs once
    C. To insert context changes into a queue
    D. To split a string into substrings
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 4
    Which step types can be used as the first step in an integration process?
    A. Block
    B. Receive
    C. Wait
    D. Send
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 5
    Which of the following SAP NetWeaver components use Enterprise Services Repository?
    (Choose two)
    A. SAP NetWeaver Business Warehouse
    B. SAP NetWeaver Portal
    C. SAP NetWeaver Process Integration
    D. SAP NetWeaver Mobile
    E. SAP NetWeaver Developer Studio
    Answer: C,E

C_ISR_60 C_TBIT44_73 practice test

C_ISR_60 C_TBIT44_73 practice test

  • Code:C_ISR_60 C_TBIT44_73
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  • Exam Demo:
  • C_TBIT44_73
    QUESTION NO: 1
    In which cases do you need to use ccBPM processes? (Choose two)
    A. When collecting messages
    B. When querying databases
    C. When using a synchronous/asynchronous bridge
    D. When using scenarios that are based on an AEX installation
    Answer: A,C
    QUESTION NO: 2
    Which Web-services-related protocol is supported by SAP NetWeaver PI 7.3?
    A. Web Services Description Language (WSDL)
    B. WS-Reliable Messaging (WS-RM)
    C. Representational state transfer (REST)
    D. Open Data Protocol (OData)
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 3
    What is the purpose of the standard SplitByValue function?
    A. To split the payload
    B. To replicate a value of a field that occurs once
    C. To insert context changes into a queue
    D. To split a string into substrings
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 4
    Which step types can be used as the first step in an integration process?
    A. Block
    B. Receive
    C. Wait
    D. Send
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 5
    Which of the following SAP NetWeaver components use Enterprise Services Repository? (Choose two)
    A. SAP NetWeaver Business Warehouse
    B. SAP NetWeaver Portal
    C. SAP NetWeaver Process Integration
    D. SAP NetWeaver Mobile
    E. SAP NetWeaver Developer Studio
    Answer: C,E
    C_ISR_60
    QUESTION NO: 1
    Which of the following are the effects of a goods issue posting for an outbound delivery in SAP Retail? (Choose three)
    A. The stock quantities are updated in the article master.
    B. The value change is updated in the stock accounts in Financial Accounting (FI).
    C. The status of the outbound delivery is updated in the document flow.
    D. The pick quantity in the transfer order is updated.
    E. The stock type Blocked stock changes.
    Answer: A,B,C
    QUESTION NO: 2
    Which of the following needs to be considered when using the replenishment based inventory management procedure?
    A. Only the unrestricted-use stock type is monitored.
    B. Documents are created for all goods movements.
    C. Different stock types are monitored.
    D. Documents are created for goods receipts only.
    Answer: A
    QUESTION NO: 3
    Which of the following functions are offered by replenishment planning in SAP Retail? (Choose three)
    A. Calculating requirements for merchandise category value-only articles.
    B. Determining requirements for stores based on the stock situation.
    C. Considering different customer stock types.
    D. Analyzing customers’ sales data and stock data.
    E. Generating follow-on documents.
    Answer: B,D,E
    QUESTION NO: 4
    Which of the following are the IT scenarios powered by SAP NetWeaver Master Data
    Management (MDM)?
    A. SRM Master Data Management, SRM Master Data Consolidation, SRM Master Data
    Harmonization
    B. Central Master Data Management, Master Data Consolidation, Master Data Harmonization
    C. ERP Master Data Management, ERP Master Data Consolidation, ERP Master Data
    Harmonization
    D. Central Customer Master Data Integration, Customer Rich Product-Content Management, Master Data Harmonization
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 5
    Where is the supplementary calculation schema assigned?
    A. Condition type
    B. Calculation schema
    C. Access sequence
    D. Schema group
    Answer: A

C_TPLM30_65 C_HANAIMP131 exam study guide

C_TPLM30_65 C_HANAIMP131 exam study guide

  • Code:C_TPLM30_65C_HANAIMP131
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  • Exam Demo:
  • C_HANAIMP131.
    QUESTION NO: 1
    What is the functionality of an aggregation node in a calculation view? (Choose two)
    A. It calculates the sum, minimum, or maximum values for selected columns
    B. It provides grouping of filter criteria
    C. It provides deeper control over which columns are totaled
    D. It determines the output structure of the calculation view
    Answer: A,C
    QUESTION NO: 2
    Which of the following is included in a rapid deployment solution (RDS) implemented on SAP HANA? (Choose three)
    A. Conversion of all BEx queries to analytic views
    B. Guides and educational material
    C. A mix of onsite and offsite consulting
    D. The SAP HANA database license
    E. SAP best practices and templates
    Answer: B,C,E
    QUESTION NO: 3
    You want to enable the end user to decide at runtime how to restrict the data in an information model.
    Which of the following objects do you use?
    A. Input parameter
    B. Filter
    C. Restricted measure
    D. Variable
    Answer: D
    QUESTION NO: 4
    You want to create a sales analysis by combining your customer master data with your
    transactional sales data.
    How do you model your data to ensure best performance?
    A. • Model the transactional data in the data foundation of an analytic view
    • Model the master data in the data foundation of an attribute view
    • Join both in the logical join of analytic view
    B. • Model the transactional data in the projection node of an calculation view
    • Model the master data in the data foundation of an attribute view
    • Combine both in the union node of the calculation view
    C. • Model the transactional data in the data foundation of an analytic view
    • Model the master data in the projection node of a calculation view
    • Combine both in the union node of the calculation view
    D. • Model the transactional data in the projection node of an calculation view
    • Model the master data in the data foundation of an attribute view
    • Combine both in the join node of the calculation view
    Answer: A
    QUESTION NO: 5
    What must you do to enable currency conversions with a fixed currency in an analytic view?
    A. Set the Enable for Conversion option
    B. Create a measure with the measure type Simple
    C. Base the target currency on a currency column
    D. Create the target currency using an input parameter
    Answer: A
    C_TPLM30_65
    QUESTION NO: 1
    Which of the following are prerequisites for business completion? (Choose two)
    A. The order must have actual costs.
    B. The order must be fully settled.
    C. The balance of the order must be zero.
    D. The order must have planned costs.
    Answer: B,C
    QUESTION NO: 2
    What information does the value category provide in the maintenance order?
    A. The costs details for individual technical objects
    B. The costs by work center
    C. The material costs by valuation category
    D. A summary of costs for multiple cost elements
    Answer: D
    QUESTION NO: 3
    Which of the following Customizing settings is required to assign a notification to a maintenance order operation?
    A. Assignment of operations to all object list entries active
    B. Assignment of order type to notification type
    C. Maintain indicator for notification data on order header
    D. Create default value profiles for general order data
    Answer: A
    QUESTION NO: 4
    When the user creates a maintenance plan for a call object (order), which value in the planning data determines the order type?
    A. Priority
    B. Maintenance activity type
    C. Maintenance planner group
    D. Main work center
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 5
    A maintenance technician replaces a defective counter with a new counter.
    Before the users can create a standard measuring document for the new counter, what step(s) must they perform?
    A. Create a new technical object to represent the new measuring point.
    B. Create a special measuring document and set the Counter Replacement indicator.
    C. Dismantle the old measuring point and create a new measuring point.
    D. Create a new measuring point and change the measuring point from which the measurement reading was transferred.
    Answer: B